2

Let $E\subset (0,1)$ is Lebesgue measurable, $f:(0,1)\to\mathbb{R}$ is of class $C^1$ and strictly increasing. Show that $f(E)$ is Lebesgue measurable.

My attempt: Since every Lebesgue measurable set $E$ can be decomposed as $F \cup N$, where $F$ is an $F_\sigma$-set and $N$ has Lebesgue measure zero. Since $f$ is a homeomorphism between the interval $(0,1)$ and its image, $f(E)=f(F)\cup f(N)$ and $f(F)$ is also an $F_\sigma$-set. Therefore, it remains to show that $f(N)$ is also Lebesgue measurable.

However, since $f$ is defined on an open interval, it may diverge to $\pm\infty$ at the endpoint. That means I cannot assume that $f$ is absolutely continuous and I cannot claim directly that $f(N)$ also has Lebesgue measure zero.

What should I do in this case?

Any hints or advices will help a lot!

bellcircle
  • 3,069
  • Hint: can you show that $A\subset\Bbb R$ is Lebesgue measurable if and only if $A\cap[a,b]$ is Lebesgue measurable for every $[a,b]\subset\Bbb R$? Does that help here? – Greg Martin Mar 26 '18 at 07:23
  • note that every $F_{\sigma}$ set is a countable union of compacts, so $f(F)$ also is, even if $f$ is only assumed to be continuous. So you can get away with the strictly increasing condition. – orangeskid Mar 26 '18 at 08:17

1 Answers1

2

Let $f_{n}=f\big|_{[1/n,1-1/n]}$ for $n\geq 2$ and $E_{n}=E\cap[1/n,1-1/n]$, and we have $f(E)=\displaystyle\bigcup_{n\geq 2}f_{n}(E_{n})$ and each $f_{n}(E_{n})$ is Lebesgue measurable by the reasoning.

user284331
  • 56,315
  • Thanks for the answer! Here each $f_n$ is absolutely continuous on the given interval $[1/n,1-1/n]$, so we can argue that $f_n(E_n)$ is measurable for each $n$, right? – bellcircle Mar 26 '18 at 07:28