If $a$, $b$, and $c$ are not real, then the question as stated is false. The roots of $x^3 + 3x^2 + 3x + 2$ are $-2$ and $-\frac{1}{2} \pm \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} i$; and the polynomial $x^2 + (\frac{5}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} i)x + (1 + \sqrt{3} i) = (x + 2)(x + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} i)$ shares two roots with $x^3 + 3x^2 + 3x + 2$ but does not have $a = b = c$.
I think that the strongest statement that can be made is that if $a, b, c \in \mathbb{C}$ have the same argument, then the statement must be true. If this is the case, then we have $a = Ae^{i\theta}, b = B e^{i\theta}, c = e^{i \theta}$ for the same $\theta$ in each case and $A, B, C \in \mathbb{R}$. In such a case, the polynomial $a x^2 + bx + c = e^{i \theta}(A x^2 + Bx + C)$ will have the same roots as $Ax^2 + Bx + C$; and since this latter polynomial is real, its roots must be complex conjugates of each other. This implies that $A x^2 + Bx + C$ is a multiple of $(x + \frac{1}{2} + \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} i)(x + \frac{1}{2} - \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} i) = x^2 + x + 1$, and therefore that $A = B = C$. (Note, however, that they are not necessarily equal to 1.)