I met this equation frequently in Guass-Newton optimizations. But I dont understand why the left and right side of the equation can be equal.
Lets say the Jacobian is $2$ by $2$
and Hessian is $$\begin{bmatrix}\frac{\partial^2f_1}{\partial^2 x_1 } & \frac{\partial^2f_1}{\partial^2 x_2 } \\ \frac{\partial^2f_2}{\partial^2 x_1 } & \frac{\partial^2f_2}{\partial^2 x_2 }\end{bmatrix}$$
But the right hand side of the equation is $$J^TJ =\begin{bmatrix} \left( \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_1} \right)^2 + \left( \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_1} \right)^2 & \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_1}\frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_2} +\frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_1}\frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_1}\\ \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_1}\frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_2} +\frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_1}\frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_1} &\left( \frac{\partial f_1}{\partial x_2} \right)^2 + \left( \frac{\partial f_2}{\partial x_2} \right)^2\end{bmatrix} $$
Why can these two be equal as presented in papers?