Show that if an integral domain $A$ is integrally closed in its field of fractions $K$, then so is $A[T]$ in its ring of fractions, $K(T) := \mathrm{Frac}(A[T])$.
What I have done so far (albeit not much) is the following.
Pick any $p(T) \in K(T)$ that is integral over $A[T]$, that is, the following is true.
$p(T)^n + a_{n-1}p(T)^{n-1} + \cdots+ a_1p(T) + a_0 = 0$ with each $a_i \in A[T]$.
One hint I got was that I could try eliminating the denominator of $p(T) = \frac{f(T)}{g(T)}$ by multiplying out by $g(T)^n$. But that is about it, I'm stuck quite some time trying to do the next step.
So any help or insights regarding this is deeply appreciated.