Do either of the two infinite products $~\displaystyle\prod_{p~\in~\mathbb P}\bigg(1+\frac{2^2}{p^2}\bigg)~$ and $~\displaystyle\prod_{p~\in~\mathbb P}^{p~>~2}\bigg(1-\frac{2^2}{p^2}\bigg)~$
possess a closed form expression, where $\mathbb P$ represents the set of all primes ?
If not, do they at least possess a number-theoretical interpretation, like the Feller-Tornier constant, for instance, whose decimal expansion can be found on OEIS ?
The motivation behind this question can be found here.
The multiplicative inverse of $~\displaystyle\prod_{p~\in~\mathbb P}^{p~>~2}\bigg(1\pm\frac4{p^2}\bigg)~$ can be written as $~\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(\mp~4)^{\Omega(2n+1)}}{(2n+1)^2}~,~$ where $\Omega(k)$ represents the total number of prime factors of k, counted with multiplicity.
$$ \prod_{p\in\mathscr{P}}\left(1+\frac{4}{p^2}\right)=\left(\frac{\zeta(2)}{\zeta(4)}\right)^4 \zeta(4)^{-6}\left(\frac{\zeta(6)}{\zeta(12)}\right)^{20}\zeta(8)^{-60}\left(\frac{\zeta(10)}{\zeta(20)}\right)^{204}\cdots $$ [1]: https://oeis.org/A027377
– Jack D'Aurizio Feb 09 '17 at 12:40