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Let $M$ be a connected (smooth Riemannian) manifold which admits a universal cover $\tilde{M}$. Let $\Gamma$ be the group of deck transformations on $\tilde{M}$. I want to show that $\Gamma$ acts properly discontinuously on $\tilde{M}$. The definition for properly discontinuous that I'm using is as follows:

Definition 1: A group $G$ acts properly discontinously on a (smooth) manifold $N$ (it is already enough to require $N$ being a locally compact Hausdorff space) if $G$ acts by homeomorphisms and for any compact set $K \subset N$ the set $\{ \gamma \in \Gamma \mid \gamma(K) \cap K \neq \emptyset \}$ is finite.

In literature however, one sometimes finds the following definition, which for the sake of distinction, I will call properly discontinuous$^{TypeB}$ (compare Munkres' book on Topology):

Definition 2: A group $G$ acts properly discontinuously$^{TypeB}$ on a (smooth) manifold $N$ if it acts by homeomorphisms and for every $x \in N$ there is an open neighborhood $U$ of $x$ in $N$ such that $g(U) \cap U = \emptyset$ for all $g \in G \setminus\{id\}$.

It is easy enough to show that the group of deck transformations $\Gamma$ acts properly discontinuously$^{TypeB}$ on $\tilde{M}$ (i.e. using Definition 2).

I was unable to prove however, that properly discontinuous$^{TypeB}$ implies properly discontinuous (i.e. Definition 2 implies Definition 1). The proofs I've found are all either rather indirect (i.e. with many intermediate steps) or use methods that I don't understand. Compare for example the treatment here: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/55726/properly-discontinuous-action

So, I'm looking for either an immediate proof that properly discontinuous$^{TypeB}$ implies properly discontinuous or a direct proof that $\Gamma$ acts properly discontinuously on $\tilde{M}$ (using Definition 1).

Thanks in advance for any help!

Tom Bombadil
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  • https://math.dartmouth.edu/~m125x15/quat-book-chap28-071515.pdf theorem 28.3.12 explains your question! –  Jul 19 '16 at 08:20
  • Thanks for your reference! As I've mentioned, I've seen similar proofs to the one you're referring to, which is rather indirect and uses several other properties I'm not too familiar with. What I'm looking for though, is really a more direct proof. – Tom Bombadil Jul 19 '16 at 09:00

1 Answers1

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Your definition 2 is an equivalent condition for the quotient map $N \to N/G$ to be a covering map. When $G$ is given the discrete topology, your definition 1 is equivalent to the action being a proper action. Definition 2 does not imply definition 1.

An example of an action satisfying definition 1 that is not a proper action is given in my answer to this question. That answer also contains a discussion of the various conflicting uses of the term "properly discontinuous."

Jack Lee
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