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I recently encountered the theorem that the sum of a closed (linear) subspace with a finite dimensional subspace is closed subspace of the Banach space in which it is contained. However, this came with the caveat that the statement does not hold for two arbitrary closed subspaces.

So, here's what I'm looking for:

Find a Banach space $X$ and closed subspaces $M,N$ such that $$ M+N=\{m+n\mid m\in M, n\in N\} $$ Is not closed in $X$.

Any references, hints, or answers are appreciated!

Ben Grossmann
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    From http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/1385725885900113: If $M,N$ are two linearly independent closed linear subspaces of a Banach space $X$, then $M+N$ is closed if and only if there exists a constant $A>0$ such that for all $x,y \in X$ with $x \in M$ and $y \in N$, we have $|x| \leq A|x+y|$.

    This should put anyone on the way to finding a counterexample, I guess.

    – sTertooy May 15 '16 at 21:43
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    Can you prove , a vector normed space is infinite dimension iff it contains two closed subspace , whose sum is not closed? – Red shoes Jul 13 '17 at 16:35
  • @Ashkan first of all, why are you commenting on this question which is more than a year old. Second, if you have a new question, post your own question. – Ben Grossmann Jul 13 '17 at 16:51
  • I came cross to this question as a similar question which I answered here https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2357241/219176 I just wanted let you know (give you a hint) how common these two subspaces are! As they appear in any infinite dimension banach space. Your hostile tone reveals you even can't tolerate a simple comment helping you to get better understanding of your own question !

    BTW, I don't need ask any question since I know the its answer.

    – Red shoes Jul 13 '17 at 17:35
  • @Ashkan I'll grant you that I was a bit hostile; sorry for that, and thank you for the information. However, you should know that from my perspective, your comment was a very strange, and it wasn't clear what your intention was. I would have been more receptive if it was clearer that you were "giving me a hint", even if it was a hint towards a question that has long since been answered to my satisfaction. Also, if your goal was to let me know about the result you linked, it would have been preferable if you just posted that link in your first comment. – Ben Grossmann Jul 13 '17 at 20:00
  • @Ashkan You should also know that it's not unusual for users to solicit math help in the comments by posting on an old question; this is what I assumed you were doing, and I find this practice to be very unpleasant. – Ben Grossmann Jul 13 '17 at 20:03

3 Answers3

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Let $X$ be a Hilbert space with orthonormal basis $\{e_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$. Let $x_n=e_{2n}$, and let $y_n=e_{2n}+\frac{e_{2n+1}}{n+1}$. Take $M$ to be the closed span of the $x_n$ and $N$ to be the closed span of the $y_n$. Note that $M+N$ contains $e_n$ for all $n$, so the closure of $M+N$ is all of $X$.

However, I claim that $M+N$ does not contain the vector $z=\sum \frac{e_{2n+1}}{n+1}$ and hence is not all of $X$. Indeed, if you could write $z=x+y$ for $x\in M$ and $y\in N$, it is clear that $y$ would have to be $\sum y_n$, since the only way to get a nonzero inner product with $e_{2n+1}$ when building an element of $M$ or $N$ is to use $y_n$. Since the sum $\sum y_n$ does not converge, there are no such $x$ and $y$.

Eric Wofsey
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  • I know this question is old, but I found it interesting enough to comment. Could you explain how to "build" elements from $M$ and $N$ to conclude your last point? – user23793 Dec 11 '17 at 15:14
  • By "build" I just mean taking linear combinations of the basis element. So if $z=x+y$ for $x\in M$ and $y\in N$, then $z=\sum a_mx_m+\sum b_my_m$ for some scalars $a_m$ and $b_m$. Computing $\langle z,e_{2n+1}\rangle$, we get just $b_n/(n+1)$, since all the $x_m$ and $y_m$ are orthogonal to $e_{2n+1}$ except for $y_n$ which has inner product $1/(n+1)$ with it. But we know $\langle z,e_{2n+1}\rangle=1/(n+1)$, so $b_n=1$ for all $n$. – Eric Wofsey Dec 11 '17 at 17:23
  • How to conclude that $e_1 \in M+N$ ? – ThiagoGM Jun 19 '22 at 19:09
  • @ThiagoGuimarãesMelo: $e_1=-x_0+y_0$ – Eric Wofsey Jun 19 '22 at 19:10
  • But in your orthonormal basis is included the vector $e_{0} = 0_{X}$ ? In a orthonormal basis we must have $||e_n|| = 1$, for all $n$. – ThiagoGM Jun 19 '22 at 19:16
  • @ThiagoGuimarãesMelo: I don't understand why you write $e_0=0_X$. – Eric Wofsey Jun 19 '22 at 19:19
  • Look, by your definition, $x_0 = e_{2\cdot0} = e_{0}$. But what means $e_0$ ? – ThiagoGM Jun 19 '22 at 19:21
  • $e_0$ is just the one of the elements of the original orthonormal basis. – Eric Wofsey Jun 19 '22 at 19:21
  • Thank you Eric, now I unsdertood. – ThiagoGM Jun 19 '22 at 19:41
  • I think I know why Thiago was confused. In principle, the vector $e_0$ is not a part of the orthonormal basis as its indexation starts with $n=1$. The easiest is just to start the indexation with $n=0$, and hence, ${e_n}_{n\in \mathbb N_0}$. Otherwise, everything is correct. – Marko Nov 13 '23 at 11:22
  • @EricWofsey It was so hard to follow the correct reasonings, but it works 100%. Thanks! – Blue Tomato May 29 '24 at 02:23
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Let $X=c_0$ be the space of sequences $\left(α_j\right)$ that converge to zero, equipped with the sup norm. Consider the subsets $$ Y=\left\{\left(α_j\right)\middle|α_{2 j-1}=0, j=1,2, …\right\} \text{ and } Z=\left\{\left(α_j\right)\middle|α_{2 j}=j^2 α_{2 j-1}, j=1,2, …\right\} $$ Since $Y$ and $Z$ are the intersection of kernels of some bounded linear functionals, $Y$ and $Z$ are closed subspaces of $X$.

We will show that the element $x=\left(1,0, \frac14, 0, \frac19, 0, …\right)$ lies in the closure of $Y+Z$ but not in $Y+Z$.


To prove $x∉Y+Z$, suppose $x=y+z,y∈Y,z∈Z$, then $z_{2j-1}=x_{2j-1}-y_{2j-1}=\frac1{j^2},z_{2j}=j^2z_{2j-1}=1$ contradicting $z_j→0$.

To prove $x∈\overline{Y+Z}$, let $x_n=\sum_{j=1}^n\frac1{j^2}e_{2j-1}$ then $x_n→x$ since $${‖x-x_n‖}=\left\|\sum_{j=n+1}^∞\frac1{j^2}e_{2j-1}\right\|=\frac1{(n+1)^2}→0$$ For all $j$, $\tfrac{1}{j^{2}} e_{2j-1}=(\frac1{j^2}e_{2j-1}+e_{2j})-e_{2j}∈Y+Z$, so $x∈\overline{Y+Z}$.

Dean Miller
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hbghlyj
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  • There appear to be some typos on the last line. – Dean Miller Apr 16 '25 at 17:30
  • More specifically, the equation "$x_{2j}=(\frac1{j^2}e_{2j-1}+e_{2j})-e_{2j}$" doesn't look quite right. Perhaps the last line should be something like "For all $j$, $\tfrac{1}{j^{2}} e_{2j-1} = (\frac1{j^2}e_{2j-1}+e_{2j})-e_{2j}\in Y+Z$, so $x\in \overline{Y+Z}$."? – Dean Miller Apr 16 '25 at 23:06
  • Corrected, thanks! – hbghlyj Apr 16 '25 at 23:18
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Here is a general construction of such a pair of closed subspaces for any infinite-dimensional Hilbert space. This construction can be found in Section 1.15 of Introduction to Hilbert Space and the Theory of Spectral Multiplicity (Second Edition) by Halmos. Note that the solution provided by Eric Wofsey resembles a particular case of this construction.

Let $\mathcal{H}$ be an infinite-dimensional Hilbert space. Let $(e_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ and $(f_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be two orthonormal sequences in $\mathcal{H}$ such that $(e_{n}, f_{m})_{\mathcal{H}} = 0$ for all $m,n\in\mathbb{N}$. Let $(\alpha_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ and $(\beta_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be sequences in $\mathbb{K}$ such that $\beta_{n}\neq 0$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $|\alpha_{n}|^{2} + |\beta_{n}|^{2} = 1$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$ and $\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}} |\beta_{n}|^{2} < \infty$. (For an explicit example, take $\beta_{n} = \tfrac{1}{n}$ and $\alpha_{n} = (1 - \tfrac{1}{n^{2}})^{\tfrac{1}{2}}$ for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$.) Define $g_{n} := \alpha_{n} e_{n} + \beta_{n} f_{n}$ for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$. Using the assumption $|\alpha_{n}|^{2} + |\beta_{n}|^{2} = 1$ for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$, it is straightforward to check that $(g_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is an orthonormal sequence in $\mathcal{H}$.

Define $M := \overline{{\rm span}}\{e_{n} : n\in\mathbb{N}\}$ and $N := \overline{{\rm span}}\{g_{n} : n\in\mathbb{N}\}$. Then $M$ and $N$ are closed subspaces of $\mathcal{H}$. Define $u := \sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}} \beta_{n} f_{n}$, where the sum converges (unconditionally) because $\sum_{n\in\mathbb{N}} |\beta_{n}|^{2} < \infty$. We claim $u\in \overline{M+N}$ and $u\not\in M + N$, from which follows that $M + N$ is not closed in $\mathcal{H}$.

We first show $u\in \overline{M+N}$. For each $k\in\mathbb{N}$ we have $\beta_{k}\neq 0$ and hence $f_{k} = - \alpha_{k} \beta_{k}^{-1} e_{k} + \beta_{k}^{-1} g_{k} \in M+N$, so it follows that $\sum_{k=1}^{n} \beta_{k} f_{k} \in M+N$ for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$ and therefore $u\in \overline{M+N}$.

We now show $u\not\in M+N$. Suppose for a contradiction this is not the case. Write $u = x + y$ with $x\in M$ and $y\in N$. Let $n\in\mathbb{N}$. Observe that $f_{n}\in M^{\perp}$, $(g_{n}, f_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} = \beta_{n}$ and $(g_{m}, f_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} = 0$ for all $m\in\mathbb{N}\setminus\{n\}$. Hence we have \begin{align*} \beta_{n} = (u, f_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} = (x + y, f_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} = (y, f_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} &= (\sum_{k\in\mathbb{N}} (y, g_{k})_{\mathcal{H}} g_{k}, f_{n} )_{\mathcal{H}} \\ &= (y, g_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} (g_{n}, f_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} = \beta_{n} (y, g_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} . \end{align*} As $\beta_{n} \neq 0$ for each $n\in\mathbb{N}$, this implies $(y, g_{n})_{\mathcal{H}} = 1$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$. But this contradicts the Bessel inequality. Therefore $u\not\in M+N$.

Dean Miller
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