Let $\{ a_n \}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence of non-negative real numbers. If $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n = \infty$, is it also true that $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_n}{1+\sum_{k=1}^{n}a_k}=\infty? $$ Note: This is not a homework problem or something I found in a text. Just a curious way of constructing a more slowly divergent series from a divergent series. Maybe it's a standard construction. I don't know.
What I tried: This is related to log, and a valid argument in that vein seems to work for a bounded sequence $\{ a_n \}$ by considering the telescoping sum $$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\ln\left(1+\frac{a_{n+1}}{1+\sum_{k=1}^{n}a_k}\right)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\left[\ln\left(1+\sum_{k=1}^{n+1}a_k\right)-\ln\left(1+\sum_{k=1}^{n}a_k\right)\right] = \infty $$ I don't think I can deal with an unbounded sequence using this argument because of how the index in the numerator on the far left is off by 1 from the denominator.