This is so called Hilbert matrix which is known as a poorly conditioned matrix. $$ A = \left(\begin{matrix} 1 & \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{3} & ... & \frac{1}{n} \\ \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{3} & \frac{1}{4} & ... & \frac{1}{n + 1} \\ \vdots & \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ \frac{1}{n} & \frac{1}{n + 1} & \frac{1}{n + 2} & ... & \frac{1}{2n - 1} \\ \end{matrix}\right) $$
The task is to prove that matrix A is positively definite.
A possible way to go is to look at the scalar product:
$$(f, g) = \int_0^1f(x)g(x)dx$$
within the space of polynomials of degree not higher than $(n - 1)$. There our form $(\cdot, \cdot)$ is bilinear, symmetric and positively defined thus our polynomials' space with that form is, in fact, an euclidean space of degree $n$.
Now let's take the following basis: ${1, x, x^2, ..., x^\left(n - 1\right)}$. It's easy to see that matrix A is a Gram matrix for this basis.
But is there another approach?