Consider \begin{equation} \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\cos(nx)}{n}=-\log|2\sin x/2|~~~ \big(x\in(0,2\pi)\big), \end{equation} and its $2\pi$-periodic extension $f$ (for a proof of the above identity see this MSE post.) Notice that $f\in L^1(0,\pi)$, since $f(x)\sim\log(x)~(x\rightarrow0)$. This Fourier series is not absolutely or uniformly convergent.
My problem is to show that every one of the partial sums \begin{equation} s_N(x)=\sum\limits_{n=1}^N\frac{\cos(nx)}{n} \end{equation} is bounded in absolute value by the same function $h\in L^1(0,\pi)$. I.e., $|s_N(x)|\leq h(x)$ for every $N\in\mathbb{N}$ and $x\in(0,\pi)$.
The various things I have tried so far mostly involve writing the partial sums using the Dirichlet kernel \begin{equation} D_N(x)=\frac{\sin(N+1/2)x}{2\sin x/2}=\frac{1}{2}+\sum_{n=1}^N\cos(nx). \end{equation} Then, using that $f$ is even and $2\pi$-periodic, \begin{align} \pi s_N(x) &=\int_{-\pi}^\pi f(t)D_N(t-x)\text dt \\ &=\int_0^\pi\big(f(y+x)+f(y-x)\big)D_N(y)\text dy \\ &=\int_0^\pi \underbrace{\log\left|\frac{\sin(y-x)/2}{\sin(y+x)/2}\right|}_{\displaystyle{:=g(x,y)}} D_N(y)\text dy. \end{align} We may differentiate $g$ to find \begin{equation} \partial_yg(x,y)=\frac{\sin x}{\cos x-\cos y}. \end{equation} Hence, integrating by parts, \begin{align} \pi s_N(x)=\left[g(x,y)\int_x^yD_N\right]_{y=0}^{y=\pi} -\int_0^\pi\frac{\sin x\int_x^yD_N}{\cos x-\cos y}\text dy. \end{align} The boundary terms vanish since $g(x,y)$ vanishes when $y=0,\pi$, so if we write $\int_x^yD_N=K_N(x,y)$ then \begin{equation} \pi s_N(x)=-\int_0^\pi K_N(x,y)\partial_yg(x,y)\text dy. \end{equation}
Observe that $\partial_yg(x,y)$ is singular as $y\rightarrow x$, and indeed, by Taylor-expanding $\cos y$ around $x$, behaves like \begin{equation} \frac{1}{y-x}\big(1+O(y-x)\big). \end{equation} Clearly, then, one needs to prove that $K_N(x,y)$ will "kill" $(y-x)^{-1}$ in some uniform fashion as $y\rightarrow x$ (and $N\rightarrow\infty$!). Unfortunately using the $\sin$-representation of $D_N$ to Taylor-expand $K_N$ around $y=x$ gives \begin{equation} K_N(x,y)=D_N(x)\int_x^y\big(1+N\cdot O(t-x)\big)\text dt= D_N(x)(y-x)\big(1+N\cdot O(y-x)\big), \end{equation} where I have left out the factor $N$ from the $O$-term to illustrate the non-uniformity of the convergence.
There are a couple of other failed attempts I made in a similar vein (for example using the $\cos$-representation of $D_N$), but for fear of making this post too long, I will leave them out. Any ideas on how to proceed would be greatly appreciated, though I would prefer them left as ideas, and not fully fleshed-out answers. Thanks in advance!