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I wonder, can we, for instance, say that $\pi$ is more irrational than $e$? Or that $e$ is more irrational than $\sqrt{2}$? What kind of irrationality measurement can we use to say that $A$ is (much) more irrational than $B$? (in particularly rigorous sense)

Gary B
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6 Answers6

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Well, there is a sort of extension of the idea of irrationality called "transcendental". You can think of "irrational" as meaning "There is no way to relate this number to $1$ by thinking only about addition and subtraction". That is, a number $q$ is rational if we can write something like: $$q+q+q-1-1-1-1=0$$ or some other similar equation involving only $q,\,+,$ and $1$. The above represents the number $\frac{4}3$ and more generally, you can, for $q=\frac{a}b$ write: $$\underbrace{q+\ldots+q}_{b \text{ repetitions}}-\underbrace{1-\ldots-1}_{a \text{ repetitions}}=0.$$ or appropriately change signs for negative $a$.

The next logical step would be to consider the idea of allowing multiplication too - and this extends the rational numbers to algebraic numbers, which are (potentially) irrational, but can be related to the rationals via multiplication and addition. For instance, $x=\sqrt{2}$ satisfies $$x^2-2=0$$ and we can come up with similar expressions (the set of such equations would be polynomials to be precise) for any expression built with radicals and addition and such - and we could say that the degree of an algebraic number (i.e. how many multiplications we need) represents how irrational it is - that is $\sqrt{2}$ can be related to integers by squaring it, but $\sqrt[3]{2}$ requires cubing to get to an irrational - and numbers like $\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}$ require fourth powers. We might say that the degree represents a sort of "distance" from the rational numbers.

However, this only extends to a narrow class of numbers - $\pi$ and $e$ are both transcendental, meaning "not algebraic". We have much less understanding of these, since we can't relate them to the rationals through arithmetic - so we could be justified in saying that they are less well behaved then algebraic numbers. One way we can talk about their irrationality measure which essentially tells us how far from rational numbers a given irrational is, relating the growth of the denominator of the best rational approximations to how close they are - this represents how these numbers are comprehended by looking at sequences of rational approximations, rather than algebraic properties. However, this isn't terribly useful to compare actual numbers, because we hardly know how to calculate any. We do know that, from its infinite series, that $e$ acts very similarly to an algebraic number (looking at its series definition) and its irrationality measure is $2$. We don't know the irrationality measure of $\pi$, though we might suspect that it greater than $2$ - but it's hard to compare numbers this way, given our limited knowledge thereof, and all it means to have a small irrationality measure is that it's "far" from any rationals with small denominators.

Milo Brandt
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  • so which more irrational pi,e,or square-root of 2,or euler masc constant ? – Gary B Jan 03 '15 at 22:16
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    Who says the Euler-Mascheroni constant is even irrational? :) – Nick D. Jan 03 '15 at 22:17
  • Well, this would suggest the order is, from least to most, $\sqrt{2}$ (since it can be related to the rationals algebraically and therefore has irrationality measure $2$), $e$ (since it is easily approximated by rationals), then $\pi$ (since it probably isn't as easy to approximate by rationals as $e$, but we don't really know that for sure). We don't know enough about the Euler-Mascheroni constant to say where it fits in. – Milo Brandt Jan 03 '15 at 22:18
  • but it strongly suspected to be irrational – Gary B Jan 03 '15 at 22:19
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    Be careful with this accursed name! Quadratic irrationals are the most badly approximable numbers, while the transcendental Liouville numbers are extremely well approximable. Seriously, this naming disaster has created no end of confusion. – guest Jan 03 '15 at 22:19
  • @guest Good point; I edited the post to perhaps better reflect this. It doesn't exactly help that rationals are considered to have irrationality measure $1$ (and that irrationality measure is not the most intuitive definition to begin with) – Milo Brandt Jan 03 '15 at 22:28
  • @Meelo exactly; in my courses I never refer to irrationality measure. I call it Diophantine exponent or approximation exponent, which much better reflects its nature. Of course rationals will have exponent $1$, because apart from the obvious candidate that makes the difference zero, rationals are as far apart from each other as possible. Algebraic numbers can come closer, but not by much. Some transcendental numbers can be much closer, but some others can be as far apart as algebraic numbers. So there is really no content to the name 'irrationality measure'. – guest Jan 03 '15 at 22:33
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    You say on the irrationality measure of $\pi$ that we might suspect that it greater than 2. However we could also conjecture that it is 2. Almost all numbers (with respect to Lebesgue measure) have irrationality measure 2, so why would $\pi$ be unusual? The only thing that is known, is that the irrationality measure of $\pi$ is in $\left[ 2, 7.60630853 \right)$. – Jeppe Stig Nielsen Jan 04 '15 at 22:22
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A first thing to note is that there is a dichotomy among irrational numbers, some are roots of non-zero polynomials with rational coefficients, they are called algebraic numbers.

The others are called transcendental.

One has that $\sqrt{2}$ is algebraic, while $e$ and $\pi$ are not. In that sense $e$ and $\pi$ are perhaps more irrational.

There is a lesser known notion of periods, roughly things that can be expressed as integrals using only rational parameters. It is easy to see that $\pi$ is a period while it is unknown and doubtful that $e$ is a period.

In that sense $e$ is perhaps more irrational than $\pi$.

There is also such a thing as a measure of irrationality. It is known that the irrationality measure of every rational is $1$, of every non-rational algebraic number it is $2$, and it is at least two for transcendental numbers.

It is known that this measure is $2$ for $e$ while this is not known for $\pi$, though it might well be the case it is also $2$.

Long story short, yes, there are ways to further classify how irrational some number is, the details can however be complex and there are different ways to approach the subject.

quid
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There is another take on this that doesn't use the concepts of trancendentality or algebraity.

For any given irrational $a$, it's not hard to see that there exists a unique sequence of rationals $\{\frac{a_1}{1}, \frac{a_2}{2}, \frac{a_3}{3}, \ldots, \frac{a_n}{n}, \ldots\}$ such that each term is the closest rational to $a$ with that denominator.

Of course, we can then take a subsequence of terms $\sigma(k)$ such that $|a - \frac{a_{\sigma(k)}}{\sigma(k)}|$ is monotonically decreasing (arbitrarily, take the one that is biggest, in the sense of set inclusion).

We could say that irrational number $b$ is`more irrational' than $a$ if its corresponding monotonic sequence $\{|b - \frac{b_{\tau(k)}}{\tau(k)}|\}_{k \in \mathbb{N}}$ converges slower than $\{|a - \frac{a_{\sigma(k)}}{\sigma(k)}|\}_{k \in \mathbb{N}}$.

This is very related continued fractions - I haven't looked at the link APGreaves posted, but I presume it's similar.

  • Are you sure this yields a well-defined notion of which number is more irrational? Given that there are necessarily many distinct maximal decreasing subsequences in any such sequence, it's not clear that we get the same result, regardless of our choice - and if not, this doesn't tell us anything about the irrationals, just our choice of sequence. – Milo Brandt Jan 04 '15 at 02:23
  • @Meeloo Well for instance if we always pick the first term, and then pick successive terms such that the difference $a - \frac{a_k}{k}$ is maximal but bounded above by the previous difference, this gives a well-defined choosing rule for the subsequence.

    But even if not, sequence of rationals we get from the continued fraction representation of an irrational can be shown to converge faster than any other rational sequence of the same denominators. We can also compare the convergence rates of these sequences for different irrationals.

    – Michael Cromer Jan 04 '15 at 04:40
  • so pi is definitely more irrational than both e and golden ratio ? – Gary B Jan 04 '15 at 04:59
  • @GaryB Check out this book. I don't recall which of those numbers is `more irrational' under that classification scheme. – Michael Cromer Jan 04 '15 at 05:15
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    I don't see the link from APGreaves you're referring to, but the value of continued fractions is that the truncated continued fractions of a number give a series of rational approximations all of which are better than any approximation with a smaller or equal denominator — i.e. they do the work for you :) – hobbs Jan 05 '15 at 01:08
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    (See for instance HAKMEM 101A, probably not the mathematically best reference, but the one I learned from!) – hobbs Jan 05 '15 at 01:11
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    @GaryB: Actually, no; by the approach in this answer, the golden ratio would be the most irrational number! See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Continued_fraction#Infinite_continued_fractions. – ruakh Jan 05 '15 at 01:39
  • @ruakh ,I don't understand,golden ratio only involves square root of 5, how can it is more irrational than pi ? – Gary B Jan 05 '15 at 13:16
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    @GaryB: This answer doesn't have anything to do with what is "involved" in expressing the number. It takes a completely different approach; and in that approach, the golden ratio is unusually irrational. – ruakh Jan 05 '15 at 16:35
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As noted by @quid and @meelo the irrationality measure is a tool that we can use, but it's very difficult to calculate and does not capture the idea of "how different is a real number by a rational number in an algebraic sense". I don't know if such an idea has a well defined mathematical meaning, but I think that it's interesting and I'm tempting to capture such idea by means of the "amplitude" of the field extension of the rational field that we need to "catch" the given real number.

From $\mathbb{Q}$, adding the operation $\sqrt{\cdot}$ to the classical arithmetic operations, we can buid the quadratic closure of $\mathbb{Q}$ that coincide with the filed of Constructible numbers ($\mathbb{G}$ for Geometric), then we can buid the field of algebraic numbers $\mathbb{A}$ and we have $\mathbb{Q}\subset \mathbb{G} \subset \mathbb{A}$. So that we can say that a number in $\mathbb{A}/\mathbb{G}$ is "more irrational" than a number in $\mathbb{G}$.

Now we can build an "exponential" field adding to the operations in $\mathbb{A}$ the exp operation $a^b \quad a,b \in \mathbb{A}$ and taking the field closure, so finding a new field $\mathbb{E}$ such that $\mathbb{A} \subset \mathbb{E} $ (the construction of $\mathbb{E}$ can be made as that). In this field there are many transcendental numbers but, as far as I know, we don't know if $e,\pi \in \mathbb{E}$.

We can further enlarge $\mathbb{E}$ adding the series of the form $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty f_{(a,b,c\cdots)}(n) \qquad a,b,c, \in \mathbb{E} $$ where $a,b,c,\cdots$ is a finite set of constants and $f$ is an expression constructed with the operations just defined in $\mathbb{E}$ that is the same for all terms of the series, as an exemple : $$ f(n)=\dfrac{a^{n^2-1}}{n!-b^{n+1}} $$ If we call $\mathbb{S}$ (for Series) the field closure of such set, we have $ \mathbb{Q} \subset \mathbb{G} \subset \mathbb{A} \subset \mathbb{E} \subset \mathbb{S}$.

Here we begin to have some trouble, because I don't know if $\mathbb{S}$ is bigger or smaller then the ring of periods ($\mathbb{P}$) nor what is his relation with computable numbers ($\mathbb{T}$ for Turing). But if we hypothesize that
$$ \mathbb{Q} \subset \mathbb{G} \subset \mathbb{A} \subset \mathbb{E} \subset \mathbb{S} \subset \mathbb{P} \subset \mathbb{T} \subset \mathbb{U}\subset \mathbb{R} $$ where $ \mathbb{U}$ is the set of uncomputable numbers, we have a chain of fields that can give a sort of measure of how away is a number from a rational. Note that in this chain only $\mathbb{U}$ ( and obviously $\mathbb{R}$) are uncountable sets.

I see that all this is more a suggestion (with many open questions) than an answer but I hope it can be useful. Anyway, others classical approaches to this hard question are here.

Emilio Novati
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  • If I'm not misunderstanding your definition, $\mathbb S=\mathbb R$. I can write any real number as $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}2^{-x_n}$ for some sequence $x_n$ (i.e. the positions of the $1$'s in its binary expansion). – Milo Brandt Jan 04 '15 at 16:59
  • Mmm... I think to an expression that is the same for all elements of the series. Something as $(a^{(n \mbox{stuff})}+\sqrt[n]{\mbox{stuff}}+ \cdots$. So in your exeple $x_n$ must be defined by an expression that is the same for all digits. But I see that i've not well defined such idea. How to do ? – Emilio Novati Jan 04 '15 at 17:20
  • Well, you could do $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}f(n)$ for some function $f$ built from elementary operations and exponents. – Milo Brandt Jan 04 '15 at 17:46
  • Ok, thanks.I've edit – Emilio Novati Jan 04 '15 at 17:47
  • another interesting idea. – Gary B Jan 04 '15 at 20:58
  • @EmilioNovati I really like your construction. Along the same lines, you might be interested by the Hypertype Theory that I am trying to put together. – ismael Jan 06 '19 at 19:54
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One way to view things would be to make the distinction between:

  • algebraic numbers, which are irrational but not too far from rational numbers, in the sense that they are roots of polynomial equations with rational (or even integer) coefficients. For instance $\sqrt 2$ satisfies the equation $x^2=2$. The set of all algebraic numbers is countable, just as the rational numbers.
  • transcendental numbers which are not roots of any polynomial with rational coefficients. Among these numbers $\pi$ and $\mathrm e$ are transcendental. It was proved only towards the end of the 19th century, although it was known since the mid-18th century that $\pi$ is irrational (Johann Lambert, 1761). It is not known if the Euler-Mascheroni constant is rational od irrational. Transcendental numbers are much numerous than algebraic numbers – actually as many as real numbers.

The fact that $\pi$ is not an algebraic number provides a negative answer to the problem of squaring the circle, a problem that dated back to the Ancient Greek.

Bernard
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No rational number is irrational, but in the same way we can measure how "black" a shade of grey is, given that every irrational number has an infinite continued fraction, a fair measure of how irrational a rational number is, is by the length of its continued fraction.

As part of my studies of the Collatz conjecture I discovered (proof thanks to Torsten Schoeneberg) that every rational number has precisely one finitely-long continued fraction of the form $1-\dfrac1{2^{m_0}-\dfrac1{2^{m_1}-\dfrac1{2^{m_2-\frac1{\ldots}}}}}$

provided the terms are measured by letting $\lvert x\rvert_2$ be the 2-adic value of $x$ and iterate $1-\dfrac1{x\lvert x\rvert_2}$ until you get to zero. The number of steps taken is the length of the continued fraction and the measure.

What is more, if you wish more resolution, you can assign every rational number (up to bijection) an ordinal less than $\omega^\omega$. To do this, simply identify $m_0, m_1,\ldots$ by counting the number of divisions by $2$ required at each step. Then use any bijection $f$ from $\Bbb Z\to \Bbb N$ to send $m_i\to n_i$ and:

$1-\dfrac1{2^{m_0}-\dfrac1{2^{m_1}-\dfrac1{2^{m_2-\frac1{\ldots}}}}}\mapsto \displaystyle\sum_{i=0}^\infty\omega^i\cdot n_i=\displaystyle\sum_{i=0}^\infty\omega^i\cdot f(m_i)$

is a bijection from the rationals into the ordinal $\omega^\omega$.

Robert Frost
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  • I appreciate you trying to give me credit, but nowhere in https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2853965/96384 or https://math.stackexchange.com/q/2855057/96384 did I claim that every rational has "precisely one" such expansion, because that's not true. E.g. $ 2= \dfrac{1}{1- \dfrac{1}{1 - \dfrac{1}{1- 2 }}}$ hence $ -1= \dfrac{1}{1- 2 } = \dfrac{1}{1- \dfrac{1}{1 - \dfrac{1}{1- \dfrac{1}{1-2}}}}$ etc. For that and other reasons, I think this attempt to measure "how irrational a rational is" fails, besides not being an answer to the OP. Also, the last paragraph makes no sense. – Torsten Schoeneberg Mar 23 '21 at 20:21
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg Dealing at first with the slightly different continued fraction, I added finitely long. You can divide the top and bottom of your continued fraction by $2^{a_0}$ and then proceed dividing the next part (top and bottom) by $2^{a_1}$ and so on, leaving its value unchanged, to yield the form I give. Am I right in thinking the remaining error is that my form must terminate with a $2^{n_i}=2^0=1$ in order to match yours? – Robert Frost Mar 24 '21 at 09:38
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg a helpful comment for you might be if I point out that that $h(x)=1-\frac1{x\lvert x\rvert_2}$ can be thought of as a the injection $h:\Bbb Q\times2^i:i\in\Bbb Z\to\Bbb Q$ given by $1-\dfrac1{x2^i}$ restricted to the partial function where $\lvert x\rvert=2^i$ which assures injection, and surjection you have skilfully shown. Are we in agreement precisely one follows from this? – Robert Frost Mar 24 '21 at 12:27
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg as a rebuttal of your counterexample $1-\dfrac1{1-\color{red}{2}}$ isn't in the prescribed form $1-\dfrac1{2^n-\color{red}{1}}$ – Robert Frost Mar 24 '21 at 13:24
  • I admit I had overlooked you also changed the form of the continued fraction, but also I do not see how to get from the form I had to the one you claim here. Could you please write e.g. $14/9 = \dfrac2{1- \dfrac2{1 - 8}} $ in "your" form, probably things become clearer to me then. When I follow your "divide top and bottom by $2^{a_0}$", I get $ \dfrac1{\frac{1}{2}- \dfrac1{1 - 8}} $ here which seems to not bring me closer to your form. – Torsten Schoeneberg Mar 24 '21 at 19:25
  • Regarding your second comment, for all I know there is no $x$ such that $h(x) = -1$ or $-3$ etc., so $h$ is not surjective, and if I showed anything skillfully, it cannot have been that. Further, any function can become injective when restricted to the right subset, but the whole point of your original question and my original answer was that when you iterate what you now call $h$ often enough, you get to $0$, which means that $h$ is not injective, actually as far from being injective as one could reasonably assume. – Torsten Schoeneberg Mar 24 '21 at 19:52
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg injective from $\Bbb N\times\Bbb Q$, can be seen as an injection from $\Bbb N^\omega$ when iterated, provided every sequence terminates at the same value. I'll look at your example and see if my claim holds up in the morning. – Robert Frost Mar 25 '21 at 04:34
  • Right @TorstenSchoeneberg I've had my pencil out and... I think your example simply becomes $\dfrac1{\frac{1}{2}- \dfrac1{1 - \dfrac1{1/8}}}$ so my form needs to end with a power of $2$ rather than with the $1$. I may have been wrong about the $1-$ at the start although of course $1-x$ is a bijection so this isn't fatal to the overall premise. – Robert Frost Mar 25 '21 at 09:50
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg moving on to your claim that you didn't prove surjection, I accept that claim because $\left{q:\left\lvert\dfrac1{1-q}\right\rvert_2\neq1\right}$ are the leaves of the graph of this function's orbit. I may have been wrong to think that $h$ must be surjective in order for the function $\omega^\omega\to\Bbb Q$ to be bijective but I need to think on that a little more. – Robert Frost Mar 25 '21 at 11:55
  • "so my form needs to end with a power of 2 rather than with the 1". So you admit that the counterexample in my very first comment is a counterexample. (You can write $1-$ in front of it of course.) --- Whilst thinking a little more, you might also want to question your underlying belief that surjectivity and injectivity of $h$ have anything to do with existence and uniqueness of some continued fraction expansion. You might got carried away there by the words "existence" and "uniqueness", which refer to quite different things in one vs. the other. – Torsten Schoeneberg Mar 25 '21 at 16:43
  • @TorstenSchoeneberg Once again you have shown me the light. What I remain convinced of is that every $q\in\Bbb Q$ has precisely one sequence of divisions by $2$ determined by $1-\dfrac1{x\lvert x\rvert_2}$ so there is still a canonical "number of steps" in that continued fraction form. But a condition must be specified constraining the nature of the continued fractions (question adjusted). However I remain convinced of my other claim: If $h$ surjected and every $q\in\Bbb Q$ converged, its graph would be connected and each sequence would be canonical. – Robert Frost Mar 25 '21 at 17:36