So clearly the kernel of $A$ is contained within the kernel of $A^TA$, since
$$\forall x\in \ker A\Rightarrow Ax=0\Rightarrow (A^TA)x=A^T(Ax) = A^T(0) = 0\Rightarrow x\in \ker (A^TA)$$
Now we need to show that the kernel of $A^TA$ is contained within the kernel of $A$. So suppose we have an arbitrary $x \in \ker(A^TA)$, then we have $(A^TA)x = 0$.
How can we show that $Ax=0$?