I have a problem connecting the definition of a coproduct with its often mentionend universal property. Let's start with the definition (just for two objects):
Let $A_1$ and $A_2$ be objects of a category $\mathcal{C}$. A coproduct of $A_1$ and $A_2$ in $\mathcal{C}$ is a triple $(A,p_1,p_2)$ where $A \in ob(\mathcal{C})$ and $p_i \in hom_\mathcal{C}(A_i,A)$ such that if $B$ is any object in $\mathcal{C}$ and $f_i \in hom_\mathcal{C}(A_i, B), i=1,2$, then there exists a unique $f \in hom_\mathcal{C}(A,B)$ such that the diagrams are commutative ($f_i = p_if$).
My apologies, I can't draw the diagram but it's pretty simple with the equation and I assume well known. While this already sounds like a universal property to me, referred to as the universal property of the coproduct is something else:
$$hom(A_1 \amalg A_2, B) \cong hom(A_1,B) \prod hom(A_2,B)$$
Now I wonder how to connect these two, e.g. how to derive this statement from the definition. It comes out of the blue for me, and I didn't came across an explanation nor a proof so far. Also often I see $\mathrm{Hom}$ instead of $hom$ - that is the same, isn't it?
\amalg) or $\oplus$ (\oplus)? – MJD Oct 25 '14 at 16:25The statement will be important to show that the tensor product shares the same universal property in a special case: link
– cbb Oct 25 '14 at 16:33