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I know some theorems about complex analysis such as the argument principle.

But I do not get the Pochhammer contour.

I read about it on the wiki page of the beta function , but I do not understand a thing.

Why this contour and not another ?

Is it based on the argument principle ?

Why is it an analytic continuation valid for all complex $a,b$ ?

Does the winding number that is $0$ not imply the integral is $0$ as well ??

Im new to complex analysis, so please explain step by step.

The wiki page does not explain much.

Here it is anyway :

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pochhammer_contour#Applications

JMP
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mick
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    For great visualizations of the contour and associated Riemann surface, see "Exploring Visualization Methods for Complex Variables" by Andrew J. Hanson and Ji-Ping Sha. – Tom Copeland Feb 03 '21 at 15:52

1 Answers1

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The use of the Pochhammer contour has nothing to do with the Argument Principle (as far as I know), and has everything to do with the multivaluedness of the logarithm.

The point of using the Pochhammer contour is to extend the defintion of the beta function $$ B(\alpha, \beta) = \int_0^1 t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x$$ to complex arguments, via analytic continuation. This is because normally the integral above is valid for $\Re(\alpha), \Re(\beta)>0$.

Before getting tangled up with this loopy contour, let us recall a few things: For complex $z,x$: $$x^z := e^{z \log(x)} \quad \text{ and } \quad \log(x) := {\rm Log}(|x|) + 2\pi i k,\quad k \in \mathbb{Z},$$ where $\rm Log$ is the logarithm defined for real values. Since the complex logarithm is multi-valued, if start from $x_0 \neq 0$ and we (anti-clockwise) loop around zero once with a path $\gamma$, we need get a factor of $+2\pi i$ to our logarithm. I will denote this by: $$ \log(x_0) \leadsto \log(x_0) + 2\pi i . $$ This same mechanism gives us: $$ (x_0)^z \leadsto e^{2\pi i z}(x_0)^z .$$ This explains the multivaluedness of complex exponentiation.

Let's now face the Pochhammer contour P (see below). The two black dots are $0$ and $1$. We can deform the straight lines so that they lie on the real line, so we obtain that $P = ABA^{-1}B^{-1}$, where $A$ is the loop starting at $1/2$ which goes once around $1$ anti-clockwise, and $B$ is the loop starting at $1/2$ which goes once around $0$ anti-clockwise.

enter image description here

Consider the integral over the Pochhammer contour $$\int_P t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x.$$ If $\Re(\alpha), \Re(\beta) >1$ then the integral vanishes along shrinking circles around $1$ and $0$, since $$|t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1}| = e^{(Re(\alpha)-1 ){\rm Log}(|t|)} e^{(Re(\beta)-1) {\rm Log}(|1-t|)} \to 0 \quad \text{as} \quad t \to 0 \text{ or } 1.$$

Now, since the integrand is multi-valued as we explained above, as we turn around $0$ or $1$ we pick up an extra factor of $e^{2\pi i \alpha}$ or $e^{2 \pi i \beta}$ respectively (or possibly its inverse if we turn conterclockwise). Thus the integrands change along different segments from 0 to 1, and they become: $$t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1}, \quad t^{\alpha-1} e^{2 \pi i \beta} (1-t)^{\beta-1} \quad e^{2 \pi i \alpha}t^{\alpha-1} e^{2 \pi i \beta}(1-t)^{\beta-1}, \quad e^{2 \pi i \alpha}t^{\alpha-1}(1-t)^{\beta-1},$$ as we do $A$, then $B$, then $A^{-1}$ then $B^{-1}$, respectively. Therefore we obtain that: $$\int_P t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x = \int_0^1 t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x + e^{2 \pi i \beta} \int_1^0 t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x + e^{2 \pi i (\beta+\alpha)} \int_0^1 t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x + e^{2 \pi i \alpha} \int_1^0 t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x ,$$ or in short:

$$\int_P t^{\alpha-1} (1-t)^{\beta-1} {\rm d}x = (1-e^{2 \pi i \alpha} )(1-e^{2 \pi i \beta} )B(\alpha, \beta). $$

This can be used to analytically extend the Beta function to the entire complex plane.

VECH
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