Here's the problem I am solving:
$G=\{x\in \mathbb{R}:x\not = 0\}$. The operation for $G$ is "$*$", with $x*y=\frac{1}{2}xy.\mathbb{R}^\times$ is the multiplicative group $\mathbb{R}.$ Find an isomorphism from $\mathbb{R}^\times\rightarrow G.$
Clearly, $\mathbb{R}^\times$ is an abelian group. Upon examination, I concluded that $(G,*)$ is also an abelian group, with the identity $e=2$ satisfying $a*e=a\;\;\forall a\in G$.
I found that the equation $f(ab)=f(a)*f(b)=\frac{1}{2}f(a)f(b)$ is satisfied by $f(x)=2x\;\forall x\in \mathbb{R}^\times$.
The problem with $f(x)=2x$ is that it is not a bijection. It is surjective but not injective, as shown by the counterexample $0\in\mathbb{R}^\times,$ but $f(0)\not\in G.$
I cannot find a bijective $f$ satisfying this problem. My conclusion is that these groups are not isomorphic. But the textbook seems to imply that an isomorphism does exist, which is why I posed this question. Is my conclusion correct? If not, can you give me a hint on how to find $f$?
Thank you.
EDIT: I was unaware that the multiplicative group is defined as $\mathbb{R}^\times=\mathbb{R}\setminus\{0\},$ so I will close the question.
EDIT 2: Not sure how to close this question.