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Suppose I know that a non-negative random variable with density $f$ has the following Laplace transform: $$\hat{f}(s)=\int_0^{\infty}e^{-st}f(t)dt=\frac{1}{\cosh(\sqrt{2s}x)}$$ where $s>0$ and $x>0$ is a parameter. I want to find the asymptotic behavior of $f(t)$ as $t\to\infty$. The standard Tauberian theorem doesn't apply since $\hat{f}(s)$ is bounded as $s\downarrow 0$. However, if we allow $s$ to be negative, there is a singularity at $s=\frac{-\pi^2}{8x^2}$ and I feel that there should be a Tauberian-type theorem that relates the asymptotic behavior of $f(t)$ as $t\to\infty$ with the asymptotic behavior of $\hat{f}(s)$ as $s\downarrow\frac{-\pi^2}{8x^2}$ along with some exponential factor involving $\frac{-\pi^2}{8x^2}$. The context of this particular problem allows other methods to be used to compute $f$ exactly so what I'm really interested in is the Tauberian-type theorem hinted at above. References to the literature are welcome.

Ron Gordon
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Sir Dour
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  • Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1447845/converse-of-the-watsons-lemma – a06e Nov 23 '20 at 09:43

2 Answers2

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Really, you are asking for the inverse LT, which by definition is

$$f(t) = \frac1{i 2 \pi} \int_{c-i \infty}^{c+i \infty} ds \, e^{s t} \, \operatorname{sech}{a \sqrt{s}} $$

where $a=\sqrt{2} x$, and $c \gt 0$ is greater than the greatest real part of any pole of the integrand.

Normally, I would take you through an integration contour in the complex plane that would allow me to evaluate the integral via Cauchy's theorem. Nevertheless, I am going to take a different approach, one that allows me to express the integrand in terms of much a sum over simpler functions that have easy inverse LTs.

I will state the following result:

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{2 n+1} \frac1{(2 n+1)^2 + b^2} = \frac{\pi}{4 b^2} \left ( 1-\operatorname{sech}{\frac{\pi b}{2}} \right )$$

This sum may be evaluated using the residue theorem, by considering the integral

$$\oint_{C_N} dz \, \frac{\pi \, \csc{\pi z}}{(2 z+1) [(2 z+1)^2 + b^2]} $$

where $C_N$ is a square contour centered at the origin of side length $2 N+1$, where $N \in \mathbb{N}$. As $N \to \infty$, the integral goes to zero. (This is a well-known result and I will not go through the details here; for those interested, see this for example.) By the residue theorem, therefore, we may write

$$2 \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{2 n+1} \frac1{(2 n+1)^2 + b^2} = -\pi \sum_k \operatorname*{Res}_{z=z_k} \frac{\csc{\pi z}}{(2 z+1) [(2 z+1)^2 + b^2]}$$

where the $z_k$ are the zeroes of the denominator of the summand, i.e., $z_1=-1/2$, $z_{2,3} = -1/2 \pm i b/2$. The residues at these poles are simple to compute and the result follows.

Let $b=(2/\pi) a \sqrt{s}$. We may then rewrite the sum as

$$\begin{align} \operatorname{sech}{a \sqrt{s}} &= 1-\frac{16 a^2 s}{\pi^3} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{2 n+1} \frac1{(2 n+1)^2 + \frac{4 a^2 s}{\pi^2}} \\ &= \frac{\pi}{a^2} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n (2 n+1)}{s+(2 n+1)^2 \frac{\pi^2}{4 a^2}} \end{align}$$

Now we may take the ILT of the desired expression, which is merely a sum over very simple expressions. The reversal of summation and integration may be justified because, for $t \gt 0$, both sum and integral converge. The ILT is therefore

$$f(t) = \frac{\pi}{a^2} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n (2 n+1) \, \exp{\left [-(2 n+1)^2 \frac{\pi^2}{4 a^2} t\right ]} $$

(The expression on the right does not converge at $t=0$ because the original integral it represents also does not converge there.)

To answer your question now, the asymptotic behavior of $f$ as $t\to\infty$ is determined by the first term in the sum, as all other terms are exponentially small for such values of $t$. Thus, we have, substituting $a=\sqrt{2} x$:

$$f(t) \sim \frac{\pi}{2 x^2} \, e^{-\frac{\pi^2}{8 x^2} t} \quad \left ( t \to \infty\right )$$

One last comment about your question: keep in mind that the LT in question has an infinite number of zeroes along the negative real axis. Thus the limit in your question doesn't make any sense.

Ron Gordon
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  • Nice answer, although I'm not sure what you mean by your last comment. As $s\downarrow -\frac{\pi^2}{8x^2}$, $\hat{f}(s)\sim\frac{\pi}{2x^2}(s+\frac{\pi^2}{8x^2})^{-1}$ so the Tauberian analogy does suggest the factor of $\frac{\pi}{2x^2}$ that appeared in your answer. I suspect that if the first pole happened to be of order $\rho$ instead of $1$, then there would be an additional factor of $\frac{t^{\rho-1}}{\Gamma(\rho)}$. Maybe there is a theorem of this sort? – Sir Dour Oct 05 '14 at 09:51
  • @SirDour: I think I understand your point now. Not sure how to answer your question. I hope the answer I provided was sufficient, though. – Ron Gordon Oct 05 '14 at 15:36
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Yes indeed, the convergence radius of a Laplace transform tells us something about the decay rate of the integrand.

I'll deal with a slightly simpler case:

$$\hat{f}(s) = \frac{1}{\cosh \sqrt{2 s}}.$$ We know that $\cosh(\theta)$ has zeros when $\theta \in \{ i (\pi/2 + n \pi), n \in \mathbb{Z} \}$, so that $\hat{f}(s)$ has singularities when $\sqrt{2s} = i(\pi/2 + n \pi)$, or $$ \lambda = -\frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{\pi}{2} + n \pi \right)^2, \quad n \in \mathbb{Z}. $$ The largest pole is $- \pi^2 / 8$ (when $n = -1$ or $n = 0$). This means that $\hat{f}(s)$ converges in the half complex plane $\mathfrak{R}(s) > -\pi^2 / 8$.

Your Laplace transform is quite well known. You're dealing with the distribution of first exit time of Brownian motion (started at zero) from the interval $[-1, 1]$.

See Lemma 2, Burq & Jones

References: Burq Z., Jones, O. D., Simulation of Brownian motion at first-passage times, Mathematics and Computers in Simulation, Volume 77 Issue 1, February, 2008, Pages 64-71

Widder, The Laplace Transform (1946), Thm 2.2a.

zab
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