This problem is from Herstein's 'Topics in Algebra'. I've thought about it a bit but haven't come up with much.
Let $G$ be a non-empty set with an associative product which also satisfies:
- $\exists e\in G $ such that $\forall a \in G$, $a \cdot e=a$.
- Given $a \in G$, $\exists y(a) \in G$, such that $y(a) \cdot a =e$.
Prove that $G$ need not be a group.
I know that $G$ is a group if any one of those multiplications is switched around, i.e, either $a \cdot y(a)=e$ or $e \cdot a=a$. But I can't quite understand why in this case $G$ is not a group. I'd be much obliged if someone can give me a good explanation of why it must be and I'd also appreciate a counter-case if nothing else.
Thanks a lot. Cheers!