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How to show that $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^k}$$ converges for all integer $k > 1$?

I know that comparison test would suffice to show that, but don't know how to start.

kaka
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    Note that it suffices to establish convergence for $k=2$. Then you can use the comparison test to conclude the same for larger $k$. So that reduces the number of cases you have to consider from countably infinite to one. :-) –  Sep 11 '14 at 04:54
  • I guess that 12 minutes are too short a time span to have the opportunity to note that the title should be heavily edited, if one is to follow the usual conventions of mathematical language. – Did Sep 11 '14 at 05:34

3 Answers3

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Compare $\frac{1}{n^2}$ with $\frac{1}{n(n-1)}$ ($n \ge 2$).

The second of these decomposes into partial fractions and the infinite sum can be easily computed.

user164587
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Hint: You can use the integral test.

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Use this: Suppose $a_n\geq a_{n+1}\geq 0 \; \forall\; n\;\in\mathbb{N} $. Then the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n$ converges if and only if $\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}2^ma_{2^m}$ converges.

Here we get $\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}2^m\frac{1}{2^{mk}}=\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}2^{(1-k)m}$. Note that this ia a geometric series with commom ratio $2^{1-k}$. Since $k>1$, $2^{1-k}<1$. Thus the series $\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}2^m\frac{1}{2^mk}$ converges. Hence the given series convergent.