Claim: there is no entire non-constant function $f$ such that $f(z+1)=f(z)$ and $f(z+i)=f(z), \forall z\in \mathbb{C}.$
May I verify if my proof is valid? Or is there a better way to approach this problem? Thank you.
Suppose there exists such $f.$ Since $f$ is continuous, $f$ is bounded on some compact set $S:=\{a+bi \in \mathbb{C} : a,b \in [0,1]\}.$
Given $z=x+iy \in \mathbb{C},\ f(x+iy)=f(a+bi+ \lfloor {x}\rfloor + i\lfloor {y}\rfloor)=...=f(a+ib),$ where $a,b \in [0,1].$
Hence, $f$ is bounded in $\mathbb{C}$ and Liouville's theorem follows.