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Claim: there is no entire non-constant function $f$ such that $f(z+1)=f(z)$ and $f(z+i)=f(z), \forall z\in \mathbb{C}.$

May I verify if my proof is valid? Or is there a better way to approach this problem? Thank you.

Suppose there exists such $f.$ Since $f$ is continuous, $f$ is bounded on some compact set $S:=\{a+bi \in \mathbb{C} : a,b \in [0,1]\}.$

Given $z=x+iy \in \mathbb{C},\ f(x+iy)=f(a+bi+ \lfloor {x}\rfloor + i\lfloor {y}\rfloor)=...=f(a+ib),$ where $a,b \in [0,1].$

Hence, $f$ is bounded in $\mathbb{C}$ and Liouville's theorem follows.

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Also another way of thinking in different context, when you see your function $f$ (assumed non-constant) is doubly periodic, think about the lattice $L$ generated by $1, i.$ Your $f$ induces a holomorphic map from $g: R=\mathbb{C}/L \to \mathbb{C}.$ Now, since $R$ is compact (is a doughnut with nothing stuffed in), by maximum modulus theorem, $g$ has to attain its maximum on the boundary of $R$ which is empty!