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Let $l^{\infty}(\mathbb{Z^+})$ be the set of all bounded complex functions on $\mathbb{Z^+}$. Then prove that $l^{\infty}(\mathbb{Z^+})$ is not separable.

My attempt: Suppose $E\subset l^{\infty}(\mathbb{Z^+})$ and $\overline E= l^{\infty}(\mathbb{Z^+})$

Each real number $t\in(0,1)$ can be expressed as $$t=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{x(n)}{2^n}$$ with $x(n)=0$ or $x(n)=1$, $\forall n$

for each $t\in(0,1)$ we can find $h(t)=x$ in $l^{\infty}(\mathbb{Z^+})$ satisfying the above representation.Then we can find $g(x)$ in $E$ such that $${\|g(x)-x\|}_{\infty}<\frac{1}{4}$$

Let $f(t)=g(h(t))$, $0<t<1$

Then I have proved that $f:(0,1)\to E$ is one-to-one,this proves that $E$ is uncountable. Since $E$ was arbitrary dense set,this shows that $l^{\infty}(\mathbb{Z^+})$ cannot have dense subsets which are countable.Hence $l^{\infty}(\mathbb{Z^+})$ is not separable.

My problem: Is this my proof correct? Because we do this for the set of all real valued bounded functions on $\mathbb{Z^+}$, but here I have complex valued functions.You can also share some other idea to prove this. Thanks in advance.

  • Diagonalize. Suppose $f_1,f_2,\ldots$ is a countable dense subset. Then construct a function $f:\mathbb{Z}^+\to{-1,1}$. For each $n$, choose $f(n)=\pm 1$ so that $|f(n)-f_n(n)|$ is big. That way, $f$ is far from every $f_n$. – Will Nelson Aug 28 '14 at 07:47
  • See also: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/97648/why-are-l-infty-and-l-infty-non-separable-spaces, http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/660418/why-is-l-infty-not-separable, http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/702199/ell-infty-mathbb-n-is-not-a-separable-space (Maybe a few other posts can be found. You could also have a look on the list of related questions on the right.) – Martin Sleziak Aug 28 '14 at 07:50
  • Since you are asking about your specific proof, I have added ([tag:proof-verification]) tag. Have a look at the tag info and if you think this tag is not suitable for your question, then edit tags to remove it. – Martin Sleziak Aug 28 '14 at 08:05
  • Thank you for this new tag. – user163993 Aug 28 '14 at 08:11
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    I would say that the basic idea of your proof is very similar to the proof posted in this answer. You have found an uncountable set of sequences of 0's and 1's such that distance of any two of them is 1. – Martin Sleziak Aug 28 '14 at 08:38

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