Consider nonempty sets $X$ and $Y$, and a function $f:X\rightarrow Y$. Suppose the inverse image of $Y$ under $f$ is countable for each element of $Y$ and assume $Y$ is countable. Prove that $X$ is countable.
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1Did you mean that "the inverse image of each element of $Y$ is countable"? It's unclear as currently written. – vociferous_rutabaga Aug 17 '14 at 12:19
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1Also, Welcome to MSE! When you post a question, please try to include some context and your attempt at a solution. See here for general guidelines. – vociferous_rutabaga Aug 17 '14 at 12:22