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Consider nonempty sets $X$ and $Y$, and a function $f:X\rightarrow Y$. Suppose the inverse image of $Y$ under $f$ is countable for each element of $Y$ and assume $Y$ is countable. Prove that $X$ is countable.

Justin
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1 Answers1

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$$X=\bigcup_{y\in Y}f^{-1}\left(\left\{ y\right\} \right)$$ so $X$ is a countable union of countable sets, hence is countable.

Do you understand that? If not then have a look here.

drhab
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