Let's say I have a continuous piecewise function of a single variable, so that $y = f(x)$ if $x < c$ and $y = g(x)$ if $x>=c$. Is it right to say that the derivative of the function at $x=c$ exists iff $f'(c-)=g'(c+)$, where $f'$ and $g'$ are obtained using derivative rules?
This would seem reasonable to me, and I fail to find an example where this does not hold. However, my calculus professors have always taught me that the only way to evaluate a derivative of such a point is using the limit definition of the derivative.