I understand that there are infinitely many primes and (obviously) infinitely many integers, but is there any way to calculate the total percentage of integers that are primes? Thanks
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2If you ask it this way, the correct answer is $0%$, but you might be interested in a related question. Therefore, look at the prime number theorem – Stefan Mesken Aug 13 '14 at 07:00
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Also questions 539192, 28540, 804502, and maybe more. – Gerry Myerson Aug 13 '14 at 07:22
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The function $\pi(n)$ tells us the amount of primes lower or equal to $n$. It is known that $\pi(n) \sim \frac{n}{\ln n}$ so the proportion as $n$ grows is about:
$$\frac{n}{\ln n}·\frac{1}{n} = \frac{1}{\ln n}$$
This means that as $n$ grows, the proportion tends to zero.
Darth Geek
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