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Most logic texts say that = is a special symbol which is always part of our language. It is my understanding, though, that it is perfectly acceptable to consider = to be an ordinary binary relation or even to not include it.

My questions are:

Are there any example of times when it is beneficial to use a first order logic without the = symbol? (I am guessing no)

If the answer to the first question is no, then has anyone worked on these types of logics despite their apparent uselessness?

1 Answers1

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Here are two examples where it is useful to omit equality.

Second-order arithmetic

In the context of second-order arithmetic, we work with a two-sorted first order logic. There are two sorts of objects: "natural numbers" and "sets of natural numbers". We include the equality sign for numbers, but not for sets of numbers. Instead, equality for sets of numbers is viewed as an abbreviation: $$ X = Y \quad \text{means} \quad (\forall n)(n \in X \leftrightarrow n \in Y). $$

The motivation for this is that equality of natural numbers is decidable in an intuitive way: given two concrete numbers, we can tell whether they are the same. Also, telling whether a given number is or is not in a given set is viewed as decidable. But telling whether two (possibly infinite) sets of numbers are equal is much more difficult. There are particular results about the difficulty of deciding atomic formulas in models of second order arithmetic that would not hold if we included equality for sets in the basic language.

Set theory

A second example is in traditional axiomatizations of set theory, which include only the membership symbol, $\in$, not the equality symbol. Equality is defined from $\in$: two sets are equal if they have the same members. In this setting, the motivation for removing equality is to be more parsimonious with basic concepts. In the traditional language of set theory, there is only one undefined symbol, $\in$, rather than two undefined symbols $\in$ and $=$.

Carl Mummert
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    Let me point out about set theory, that in all the modern textbooks which give a full treatment to axiomatic set theory, equality is indeed part of the language. (The list includes Jech, Kunen, Kanamori, and Halbeisen - and probably a few more.) – Asaf Karagila Jul 24 '14 at 21:22
  • Indeed; this is exactly why I referred to the "traditional" language of set theory. – Carl Mummert Jul 24 '14 at 21:23
  • Well, I don't know if it's my non-native ears, but traditional makes it sound as if that's how it's "usually goes down, for generations" rather than "how it went down half a century ago". – Asaf Karagila Jul 24 '14 at 21:26
  • Aha. Yes, that is another meaning of the word. – Carl Mummert Jul 24 '14 at 21:26
  • What exactly do you mean by "viewed as decidable?" Isn't decidability well defined? – Dylan Stephano-Shachter Jul 25 '14 at 02:59
  • @dstathis: it depends on how the set is presented. If you present a set by a definition, it may not be decidable just using that definition, especially if the definition involves quantifiers (e.g. the set for the halting problem). But in this context sets are essentially presented as oracles for their membership relation. – Carl Mummert Jul 25 '14 at 03:04
  • @CarlMummert: Sorry to bother you here, but I noticed that you're getting some harassing comments. So am I, actually. Kind of sucks because it keeps me from taking any action in order to avoid "conflict of interest". #ModeratorWorldProblems I've told some of the other mods, but it would be great if you would flag these comments (don't respond to them). Gives us more ammo when something is eventually done. Thanks. – user642796 Oct 06 '14 at 23:20
  • @Arthur Fischer: thanks for the ping. I will flag them going forward. In general, they don't upset me, but I can see how they are bad for the site overall, especially if one user is bouncing all over the main site instead of using meta. – Carl Mummert Oct 06 '14 at 23:56