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Let $A$ and $B$ be symmetric matrices. Prove:

  1. $AB=BA$
  2. $AB$ is a symmetric matrix

As for 1. due to the axiom $(AB)^T=B^T A^T$ so $AB=BA$
As for 2. I did not find any axiom that can support the claim, but from test I found that it is true for symmetric matrices when the entries on the diagonal are equal.

gbox
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2 Answers2

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Both claims are false and almost any $A$ and $B$ are counterexamples. For a specific example, you can see $$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \cdot \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 3 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & 5 \\ 3 & 5 \end{pmatrix}$$ while $$\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 3 \end{pmatrix} \cdot \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 3 & 3 \\ 5 & 5 \end{pmatrix}.$$

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    @nbro For symmetric matrices it's indeed true that $AB = A^T B^T = (BA)^T$ but $(BA)^\mathrm{T} \overset{\text{i.g.}}{\neq} BA$ because property 2 from the opening question does not hold. – GDumphart Jan 23 '17 at 16:32
  • @GDumphart What does the "i.g." mean over the not equals sign? – Hank Igoe Jan 10 '21 at 21:20
  • @HankIgoe: Likely it means "in general". In other words that equality holds only in special cases (namely if $AB$ is symmetric, or equivalently if $A,B$ commute). – hardmath Mar 27 '21 at 23:20
  • The simplest example is probably $\begin{pmatrix}1&\&\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}&1\1&\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}&1\&\end{pmatrix}\ne\begin{pmatrix}&\1&\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}&1\1&\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix}1&\&\end{pmatrix}$ – Kenta S Oct 16 '21 at 22:07
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Recall that by definition the product of two matrices (with components $A_{ij}$, $B_{ij}$) has components $(AB)_{ik}=\sum_j A_{i j} B_{jk}$. What about the components of ${BA}$? You'll also need to see what being symmetric implies about the components $A_{ij}$.

Semiclassical
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