
Is it because the values in the inverse matrix will have the same positive/negative values?

Is it because the values in the inverse matrix will have the same positive/negative values?
Well, A is p.d. implies that A=BB' for some square matrix B (follows immediately from the spectral theorem). Hence, det(A) = det(B).det(B), which being non-zero, det(B) is non-zero too, hence B has an inverse, say C. Then, inv(A)=C'C, hence is p.d.
$A$ is positive definite if its eigenvalues are positive. If $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A$ you have
$$Ax=\lambda x\tag{1}$$
for any vector $x$. Multiplying (1) from the left with $A^{-1}$ you obtain
$$A^{-1}Ax=\lambda A^{-1}x\Longrightarrow A^{-1}x=\frac{1}{\lambda}x$$
So the eigenvalues of $A^{-1}$ are the reciprocals of the eigenvalues of $A$, and if all eigenvalues of $A$ are positive, then so are the eigenvalues of $A^{-1}$. Consequently, $A^{-1}$ is positive definite.