Show directly from the definition of a limit of a function that
lim x->0 (x^(1/3) * sin(1/x)) = 0.
The definition is
The limit of f as x goes to p is q if for every e>0 there exists a d>0
s.t.
dx(x,p)<d for x belongs to E -> dy(f(x), q)< e
with the notation
limi x->p f(x) = q
My approach
We want to show that
dx(x,0)<d, x belongs to E -> dy( (x^(1/3) * sin(1/x)),0) < e
which is
| x-0| < d - > | x |<d
and
|(x^(1/3) * sin(1/x))|< e
Now the solution I have takes e^3=d and shows that
|(x^(1/3) * sin(1/x))|< d^(1/3)=e
which makes no sense...
I suppose the steps start from
|x^(1/3)|<= d^(1/3)
|x^(1/3)| * | sin(1/x)|<= d^(1/3) * | 1| (Does he multiply by one because the max value of sin is 1 and hence it will always be smaller? )
Then takes
e^3=d
and somehow it is proven. It makes much more sense that I explained it now but I am looking to see what people think....
Please edit the notation if you know how. Thanks a lot.