Prove or find a counterexample: The product of any three consecutive natural numbers is divisible by 6.
Answer
Let n=1, Since xeN is arbitrary p(N) holds for all xeN.
(n).(n+1).(n+2),
(1).(1+1).(1+2)= 6
Thus,6|6
Prove or find a counterexample: The product of any three consecutive natural numbers is divisible by 6.
Answer
Let n=1, Since xeN is arbitrary p(N) holds for all xeN.
(n).(n+1).(n+2),
(1).(1+1).(1+2)= 6
Thus,6|6
Since every other number is even, at least one (or two) of the three numbers $$n,n+1,n+2$$ will be even. Since every third number is divisible by three, exactly one of $$n,n+1,n+2$$ will have a factor of three. So in $$n\times (n+1)\times (n+2)$$ there will be at least one factor of two and exactly one factor of three, meaning it will be divisible by $$3\times 2=6$$
Hint: A number $x$ is divisible by $6 \iff x$ is divisible by both $2$ and $3$.
Given any $3$ consecutive integers $n$, $ \ n\!+\!1$, $ \ n \! + \! 2$, at least one will be divisible by $2$ and exactly one will be divisible by $3$. So why will their product be divisible by $6$?