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Suppose that $\tau_1$ and $\tau_2$ are two topologies on a set $X$ with the property that $K\subset X$ is compact with respect to $\tau_1$ if and only if $K$ is compact with respect to $\tau_2$. Then is this enough information to determine whether $\tau_1 = \tau_2$?

If not (which is suspect to be the case) is there a nice counterexample, and what is the minimum amount of extra information required for $\tau_1 = \tau_2$?

I feel like there would be an issue regarding 'points at infinity.'

Stefan Hamcke
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Zorngo
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    Related: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Compactly_generated_space – Najib Idrissi Mar 21 '14 at 08:14
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    The simplest counterexample is to take $X$ to be a set with $2$ elements. Evidently there is more than one topology that we can put on $X$. But regardless of the topology, every subset of $X$ is compact, since every subset of $X$ is finite. – Joe Jun 04 '25 at 19:49

4 Answers4

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It is not enough information. A simple (and perhaps frightening) counterexample is as follows: if $X$ is an uncountable set, then in both the discrete and co-countable topologies the compact sets are exactly the finite sets. It's frightening because these two topologies share virtually no properties: one is metrizable (hence perfectly normal), the other isn't even Hausdorff; one is Lindelöf, and the other has maximal Lindelöf number.

I'm not certain what additional information would be required to conclude that two topologies are the same. (I'll think about this some more.)


Addition 1

Hausdorffness is not sufficient. The discrete space on $\mathbb{N}$ and the Arens–Fort space are both Hausdorff, and the compact subsets are exactly the finite subsets, but these spaces are not homeomorphic. (Since they are both countable, we can transfer the topology of one onto the underlying set of the other, and the compact sets will be the same.)

Actually, this example shows that perfect normality, Lindelöfness, and paracompactness are not sufficient.

user642796
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    In the same spirit, the cofinite and trivial topology are both such that every set is compact, but if the underlying set is not a singleton they are very different. (But your example is better.) – Asaf Karagila Mar 21 '14 at 10:08
  • Being metrizable would be sufficient, since sharing compact sets is sufficient in a metric space, correct? https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1651142/are-two-metrics-with-same-compact-sets-topologically-equivalent – Alan Sep 28 '21 at 20:08
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Consider a finite set $X$,then every subset $A$ of $X$ is compact in the trivial topology $\{\emptyset,X\}$, but every subset $A$ of $X$ is also compact in the discrete topology on X (the topology where all subsets of X are considered open). If $|X|>1$, then these topologies are obviously not equal.

I will return to your second question if it happens that I have anything useful to say about it.

Henrik
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  • Your first paragraph doesn't answer the question: you need to consider all the subsets of $X$, not just $X$ itself. – Najib Idrissi Mar 21 '14 at 08:22
  • @nik thank you, I was stupid and read the question as "there is a K..st.." but this would of course have rendered the question trivial, as the one point sets are always compact independent of the topology on the set. – Henrik Mar 21 '14 at 08:37
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    If you additionally require that the spaces $( X , \tau_1 )$, $( X , \tau_2 )$ are compact Hausdorff, then the result follows because in compact Hausdorff spaces the compact subsets are exactly the closed subsets. – user642796 Mar 21 '14 at 08:48
  • @Arthur Fischer Yes that is right, it suffices to assume that $X$ is compact in a finer topology and hausdorff in a coarser topology, this would imply that the topologies are equal. However this condition seems a bit ad hoc, to the question at hand, so I deleted that part of my question. Thank you for your comment. – Henrik Mar 21 '14 at 09:45
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    In fact, when your $X$ is a finite set, there are many topologies possible and clearly knowledge of the compact subsets gives absolutely no information here. – Jeppe Stig Nielsen Mar 21 '14 at 12:55
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As others pointed out, there are examples of spaces where compact subsets are the same but the spaces aren't homeomorphic. For example anticompact spaces, spaces for which every compact subset is finite, provide some examples (finite spaces, discrete spaces, spaces with cocountable topology, Arens-Fort space, see here for more examples on pi-base). Another class of spaces which give some examples are Noetherian spaces, spaces for which every subspace is compact (finite spaces, indiscrete spaces, spaces with cofinite topology, see here for more examples on pi-base).

Definition. We call $X$ a KC space if every compact set is closed, we call $X$ a compactly generated space (or $k$-space) if $U\subseteq X$ is open iff $U\cap K\subseteq K$ is open in $K$ for all compact $K\subseteq X$.

Compactly generated KC spaces include sequential Hausdorff spaces, e.g. metric spaces. But they also include more exotic topologies like the Alexandroff one point compactification of any metrizable space, which are $T_1$ but generally not $T_2$ (here I show any such space is a KC space, and that they are countably generated follows from compactness).

Let $\mathcal{K}_X, \mathcal{C}_X, \mathcal{KC}_X, \mathcal{F}_X$ denote all compact, all closed, all compact closed, and all finite subsets of $(X, \tau)$. Necessarily $\mathcal{F}_X\subseteq \mathcal{K}_X$ and $\mathcal{KC}_X=\mathcal{K}_X\cap\mathcal{C}_X$, while all the other relations don't hold in general. \begin{align*} \mathcal{F}_X\subseteq \mathcal{C}_X\text{ is equivalent to }T_1,&&\mathcal{K}_X\subseteq \mathcal{C}_X\text{ is equivalent to KC},\\ \mathcal{C}_X\subseteq \mathcal{K}_X\text{ is equivalent to compact,}&& \mathcal{C}_X\subseteq \mathcal{F}_X\text{ is equivalent to finite,}\\ \mathcal{K}_X = \mathcal{F}_X\text{ is equivalent to anticompact,}&&\mathcal{K}_X = 2^X\text{ is equivalent to Noetherian,} \\ \mathcal{C}_X = 2^X\text{ is equivalent to discrete,}&& \mathcal{F}_X = 2^X\text{ is equivalent to finite.}\end{align*}

We know $\emptyset\in \mathcal{F}_X, \mathcal{K}_X, \mathcal{C}_X, \mathcal{KC}_X$ and $X\in\mathcal{C}_X$, and each of the classes $\mathcal{F}_X, \mathcal{K}_X, \mathcal{C}_X, \mathcal{KC}_X$ is closed under finite unions, $\mathcal{F}_X, \mathcal{C}_X, \mathcal{KC}_X$ are closed under arbitrary intersections, while $\mathcal{K}_X$ need not be closed under finite intersections. A sufficient condition for $\mathcal{K}_X$ to be closed under arbitrary intersections is that $X$ is a KC space.

Proposition 1. $X$ is compactly generated KC space iff $\mathcal{C}_X = \{A\subseteq X : \forall_{K\in \mathcal{K}_X} A\cap K\in \mathcal{K}_X\}$ and $\mathcal{K}_X$ is closed under finite intersections

Proof: First note $\mathcal{C}_X\subseteq\{A\subseteq X : \forall_{K\in \mathcal{K}_X} A\cap K\in \mathcal{K}_X\}$ is always true, since if $A$ is closed and $K$ is compact, then $A\cap K$ is closed in $K$, so compact. If $A\cap K$ is compact for all compact $K$, then if $X$ is a KC space, we can say that $A\cap K$ is closed in $X$, and so in $K$. If $X$ is compactly generated, this implies that $A$ is closed in $X$. Now conversely suppose that $\mathcal{C}_X = \{A\subseteq X : \forall_{K\in \mathcal{K}_X} A\cap K\in \mathcal{K}_X\}$. If $A$ is compact, then $A\cap K$ is compact for any compact $K$, so that $A$ is closed. This implies $X$ is a KC space. If $A\cap K$ is closed in $K$ for any compact $K$, then $A\cap K$ is compact for any compact $K$, so that $A$ is closed. So $X$ is compactly generated. $\square$

This proposition shows that if $f:X\to Y$ is a bijection between compactly generated KC spaces, such that $f(\mathcal{K}_X) = \mathcal{K}_Y$, then $f$ is a homeomorphism.

Proposition 2. $X$ is generated by compact closed subsets iff $$\mathcal{C}_X = \{A\subseteq X : \forall_{K\in \mathcal{KC}_X} A\cap K\in \mathcal{KC}_X\}$$

Proof: $\mathcal{C}_X\subseteq\{A\subseteq X : \forall_{K\in \mathcal{KC}_X} A\cap K\in \mathcal{KC}_X\}$ is always true, just like in proposition 1. If $A\cap K$ is compact closed for every compact closed $K$, then $A\cap K$ is closed in every compact closed $K$, so $A$ is closed in $X$ when $X$ is generated by compact closed sets. Conversely, suppose that $A\cap K$ is closed in compact closed $K$. Then $A\cap K$ is compact as a closed subset of compact space, and it's closed in $X$ since $K$ is closed in $X$. So $A\cap K\in\mathcal{KC}_X$ for $K\in\mathcal{K}_X$ and so $A$ is closed. $\square$

Let's investigate conditions under which $\mathcal{K}\subseteq 2^X$ will be a family of compact sets. Necessarily $\mathcal{F}_X\subseteq\mathcal{K}$ and $\mathcal{K}$ is closed under finite unions. Let's try to give topology to $X$ according to the formula $\mathcal{C}_X = \{A\subseteq X : \forall_{K\in \mathcal{K}} A\cap K\in \mathcal{K}\}$. The first problem is that $\mathcal{C}_X$ needs to be closed under arbitrary intersections in order to be a family of closed sets. For this we can assume that $\mathcal{K}$ is closed under arbitrary intersections. Then $X$ defines a $T_1$ topological space. In this topology, there is no guarantee that $\mathcal{K}$ consists of compact sets. This can be fixed by demanding that subfamilies $\mathcal{K}'\subseteq \mathcal{K}$ with finite intersection property have non-empty intersection. This will guarantee that $\mathcal{K}\subseteq \mathcal{K}_X$. Then $X$ will be generated by compact closed sets, since if $A\cap K$ is closed in $K$ for all compact closed $K$, then $A\cap K$ will be closed in $K$ for all $K\in\mathcal{K}$, which is seen to be equivalent to $A\cap K\in \mathcal{K}$ for all $K\in\mathcal{K}$, hence $A\in\mathcal{C}_X$.

We see that perhaps this construction is more suited for $\mathcal{K}$ to be a family of compact closed sets. In this case by not demanding $\mathcal{F}_X\subseteq \mathcal{K}$ we obtain a slightly more general construction.

Suppose you additionally assume that for any $K\in\mathcal{K}$, the topology given by closed sets $\mathcal{C}_K = \{A\in\mathcal{K}: A\subseteq K\}$ is a KC space. This topology on $K$ coincides with subspace topology $K\subseteq X$. If $A\subseteq X$ is compact, then $A\cap K$ is a closed subset of $A$, so compact subset of $K$, so closed in $K$, and hence $A\cap K\in\mathcal{K}$. It follows that $A\in\mathcal{C}_X$ so that $X$ is a KC space.

Note that I haven't claimed that $\mathcal{K} = \mathcal{K}_X$ under these conditions, and it is false since $\mathcal{K} = \{K\subseteq \mathbb{Q}^\ast : K\setminus \{\infty\}\text{ is compact}\}$ where $\mathbb{Q}^\ast$ is the Alexandroff one point compactification of $\mathbb{Q}$ satisfies all the properties but $\mathbb{Q}^\ast\notin \mathcal{K}$ even though $\mathbb{Q}^\ast$ is compact.

Jakobian
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  • Do you wish to have the phrase "give some examples" in the first paragraph of your answer? – Dean Miller May 29 '25 at 21:53
  • @DeanMiller yes, but I've changed it to "provide" if that makes it clearer what I mean. Any two spaces which are either anticompact, or Noetherian, their compact sets are determined up to bijection. And so two such spaces of the same size give an example. – Jakobian May 29 '25 at 22:06
  • Ok, now I see what you meant. Originally I misread it as you leaving that phrase there to later put some examples there. – Dean Miller May 29 '25 at 22:54
  • @DeanMiller You could say I did provide some examples, indirectly. Since the spaces in the brackets are all examples of spaces which are anticompact, or Noetherian, and depending on their size, they will provide an example. Although they are in essence just the examples of user642796, Henrik, and now deleted user136725 again. I don't think your examples are of this form, I think they are more refined. – Jakobian May 29 '25 at 22:59
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Here are another couple of examples.

The first example shows that compact sets do not determine sequential convergence. Define $X := \mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}\cup\{(0,0)\}$ where $\mathbb{N} = \{1, 2, \ldots \}$. Let $\tau_{1}$ be the cofinite topology on $X$. We also define a neighbourhood system $\mathcal{N}$ on $X$ as follows. Let $N\subseteq X$.

  1. If $(m,n)\in \mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}$ then $N$ is a $\mathcal{N}$-neighbourhood of $(m,n)$ if $(m,n)\in N$ and $N$ is cofinite.

  2. The set $N$ is a $\mathcal{N}$-neighbourhood of $(0,0)$ if $(0,0)\in N$ and the set \begin{equation} \{m\in\mathbb{N} : \{n\in\mathbb{N} : (m,n)\not\in N \} \text{ is finite} \} \end{equation} is cofinite.

It is straightforward to check that this is indeed a neighbourhood system on $X$. Consequently, this neighbourhood system $\mathcal{N}$ defines a topology $\tau_{2}$ on $X$. Note that the neighbourhoods for both topologies coincide at all points apart from $(0,0)$. Hence any subset of $X$ not containing $(0,0)$ has the same induced topology from both the $\tau_{1}$ and $\tau_{2}$ topologies. Note that both topologies are $T_{1}$, neither are Hausdorff and the $\tau_{1}$ topology is coarser than the $\tau_{2}$ topology.

We first show that every subset of $X$ is both $\tau_{1}$-compact and $\tau_{2}$-compact. That every subset of $X$ is $\tau_{1}$-compact follows from the same reasoning as in the answers here. Let $A\subseteq X$. If $(0,0)\not\in A$ then the $\tau_{1}$ and $\tau_{2}$ topologies coincide on $A$ and then $A$ is $\tau_{2}$-compact. So suppose $(0,0)\in A$. Let $\mathscr{U}$ be an open cover of $A$. There is $U\in \mathscr{U}$ with $(0,0)\in U$. Then $\mathscr{U}\setminus\{U\}$ is an open cover for $A\setminus (0,0)$. Since the $\tau_{1}$ and $\tau_{2}$ topologies coincide on $A\setminus (0,0)$, there is a finite set $\mathscr{F}\subseteq \mathscr{U}\setminus\{U\}$ which covers $A\setminus (0,0)$. Then $\mathscr{F}\cup \{U\}$ is a finite subset of $\mathscr{U}$ that covers $A$. Hence $A$ is $\tau_{2}$-compact.

Let $(a_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be an enumeration of $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}$. We claim that $(a_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges to $(0,0)$ in the $\tau_{1}$ topology but not in the $\tau_{2}$ topology. From the characterisation of sequences in the cofinite topology discussed here, we see that $(a_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ converges to $(0,0)$ in the $\tau_{1}$ topology. On the other hand, using the same reasoning as in this answer we have that $(0,0)$ cannot be the $\tau_{2}$-limit of a sequence in $\mathbb{N}\times\mathbb{N}$. Hence the sequence $(a_{n})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ does not converge to $(0,0)$ in the $\tau_{2}$ topology.

It is worth noting that the topologies in the above example were not Hausdorff. If both topologies are Hausdorff and have the same compact sets, then a sequence converges to some limit in one topology if and only if the sequence converges to the same limit in the other topology. See here for details.

The second example is from functional analysis. Let $X$ be an infinite-dimensional Banach space. Let $X^{*}$ denote its topological dual. The weak$^{*}$ topology on $X^{*}$, denoted by ${\rm w}^{*}$, is the coarsest topology which makes the map $Jx\colon X^{*}\to\mathbb{K}$ defined by $(Jx)(f) := f(x)$ continuous for every $x\in X$. The bounded weak$^{*}$ topology on $X^{*}$, denoted by ${\rm bw}^{*}$, is the finest topology which coincides with the weak$^{*}$ topology on each norm bounded subset of $X^{*}$. Note that both topologies are Hausdorff and the weak$^{*}$ topology is coarser than the bounded weak$^{*}$ topology.

Regarding the compact sets in each topology, we have the following result.

Let $B\subseteq X^{*}$. Then the following are equivalent.

${\rm (i)}$ $B$ is norm bounded and weak$^{*}$ closed.

${\rm (ii)}$ $B$ is compact in $(X^{*}, {\rm w}^{*})$.

${\rm (iii)}$ $B$ is compact in $(X^{*}, {\rm bw}^{*})$.

Proof. The implication ${\rm (i)} \Rightarrow {\rm (ii)}$ follows from the Banach-Alaoglu theorem [Corollary 2.6.19 in [1]]. The implication ${\rm (ii)} \Rightarrow {\rm (i)}$ follows from recalling that compact subsets of a Hausdorff topological vector space are closed and bounded, that the weak$^{*}$ topology is Hausdorff and that bounded subsets of $(X^{*}, {\rm w}^{*})$ are norm bounded by the uniform boundedness theorem and the completeness of $X$ [Corollary 2.6.9 in [1]]. Since the ${\rm w}^{*}$ topology is coarser than the ${\rm bw}^{*}$ topology we automatically have $({\rm iii}) \Rightarrow ({\rm ii})$. The implication $({\rm i}) \text{ and } ({\rm ii}) \Rightarrow ({\rm iii})$ follows from recalling that the ${\rm w}^{*}$ and ${\rm bw}^{*}$ topologies coincide on norm bounded sets. This completes the proof.

However, the weak$^{*}$ and bounded weak$^{*}$ topologies on $X^{*}$ are distinct whenever $X$ is infinite-dimensional. See Corollary 2.7.7 in [1].

[1] Megginson, R. E., An introduction to Banach space theory, vol. 183 of Graduate Texts in Mathematics. Springer-Verlag, New York, 1998.

Dean Miller
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