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I was wondering if following statements are true:

If $\mu$ is the Lebesgue measure and $\mu(A)=\alpha_0$, then it's not difficult to verify that for any $\alpha<\alpha_0$, there exist $B\subset A$ with $\mu(B)=\alpha$.

Then I was thinking if the same is true for any complex Borel measure $\lambda$ absolutely continuous with respect to Lebesgue measure. That is, if $\lambda$ is a complex Borel measure, $\lambda\ll\mu$ and $\lambda(A)=\alpha_0\in\mathbb{R}^+$, is it true that for any $0<\alpha<\alpha_0 $, there exists $B\subset A$ such that $\lambda(B)=\alpha$? If not, does it hold if I add the assumption that $\lambda$ is real valued?

Also I was wondering about generalization of above statement. If $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$ are complex Borel measures and absolutely continuous with respect to Lebesgue measure and $\lambda_1(A)=\lambda_2(A)=\alpha_0\in\mathbb{R}^+$, is it true that for any $0<\alpha<\alpha_0 $, there exist $B\subset A$ such that $\lambda_1(B)=\lambda_2(B)=\alpha$? If not, does it hold if I add the assumption that $\lambda_1$ and $\lambda_2$ are real valued?

It would be great if someone could help me with this, or at least let me know about a reference to read about this.

Davide Giraudo
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Cohlan
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1 Answers1

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An important property of Lebesgue measure is that it is nonatomic. A measure $\mu$ on a measurable space $(\Omega,\Sigma)$ is nonatomic if for every $B\in\Sigma$ such that $\mu(B)>0$, there is $A\in\Sigma$ such that $A\subseteq B$ and $0<\mu(A)<\mu(B)$.

A nontrivial $\sigma$-finite Borel measure $\mu$ on $\mathbb{R}$ (or any second countable Hausdorff space for that matter) is nonatomic if and only if $\mu\big(\{x\}\big)=0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$, see here for an sketch of the argument.

So any $\sigma$-finite measure continuous with respect to Lebesgue measure is nonatomic.

If $(\Omega,\Sigma)$ is a measurable space, a finite dimensional vector measure $\nu$ on this measurable space is a $\sigma$-additive function $\nu:\Sigma\to\mathbb{R}^n$ for some $n$. We say that $\nu$ is nonatomic if there is a $\sigma$-finite measure $\mu$ on $(\Omega,\Sigma)$ such that $\lim_{\mu(A_n)\to 0}\nu(A_n)=0$. Such a $\mu$ is a control measure.

Now the Liapounoff convexity theorem says that a finite dimensional vector measure with a finite and nonatomic control measure has compact and convex range. In particular, the range of a finite measure is a closed interval.

Now if $\mu_1$ and $\mu_2$ are $\sigma$-finite Borel measures on $\mathbb{R}$ continuous with respect to Lebesgue measure then both are nonatomic. Suppose $A$ is a Borel set such that $\mu_1(A)=\mu_2(A)=\alpha_0<\infty$. Now consider the measurable space $(A,\mathcal{B}_A)$ where $\mathcal{B}_A$ are the Borel subsets of $A$. Then the restriction of $\mu_1+\mu_2$ to $\mathcal{B}_A$ is a finite nonatomic measure. Define a vector measure $\nu:\mathcal{B}_A\to\mathbb{R}^2$ by letting $\nu(F)=\big(\mu_1(F),\mu_2(F)\big)$. Then $\nu$ is a nonatomic finite dimensional vector measure with control measure $\mu_1+\mu_2$. If $ 0<\alpha<\alpha_0$ then we have $$\alpha=\frac{\alpha_0-\alpha}{\alpha_0}0+\frac{\alpha}{\alpha_0}\alpha_0,$$ $$(\alpha,\alpha)=\frac{\alpha_0-\alpha}{\alpha_0}\nu(\emptyset)+\frac{\alpha}{\alpha_0}\nu(A).$$ Since $\nu$ has convex range, there is $B\in\mathcal{B}_A$ such that $\nu(B)=(\alpha,\alpha)$ and hence $\mu_1(B)=\mu_2(B)=\alpha$.

Being blissfully ignorant of complex measures, I leave that case to others.

  • A finite complex measure is just a pair of finite real measures, so your answer applies as well. – user127096 Mar 14 '14 at 18:13
  • That's awesome, I got it. Just need to read the proof of Lyapunov's theorem. Thank you very much. Also, can I ask in what course I am supposed to learn about vector measures (and related stuff)? – Cohlan Mar 14 '14 at 19:05
  • @Cohlan Lyapunov's theorem is sometimes given as an application of results on extreme points in functional analysis, but I'm not sure it is at the center at any field. It is widely used in mathematical economics though. If you have JSTOR acces, you can find an elementary proof here. – Michael Greinecker Mar 14 '14 at 19:14
  • I am taking functional this semester, but haven't seen anything like that :). Anyways, thank you very much again. – Cohlan Mar 14 '14 at 20:07
  • @MichaelGreinecker And one final question. I think using using Lyapunov's theorem it's easy to see this: If $f$ and $g$ are Lebesgue measurable and $\int_\mathbb{R}f=\int_\mathbb{R}g=\alpha_0>0$, then for any $\alpha_0>\alpha>0$, there exist $A\subset\mathbb{R}$ such that $\int_Af=\int_Ag=\alpha$. Isn't Lyapunov's theorem overkill for this? Do you know any simpler solution? – Cohlan Mar 14 '14 at 22:42
  • @Cohlan Sorry, none comes to mind. – Michael Greinecker Mar 15 '14 at 09:26
  • @MichaelGreinecker Thanks! – Cohlan Mar 15 '14 at 17:14