I don't know if this is the Riemann integral, but here is a way I was thinking about doing this using Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem. I want to define my sequence of continuous functions to be,
$$ f_n(x)=f(x^n) $$
We see that on the interval $[0,1]$ this sequence of functions converges to $f(0)$ almost everywhere because for almost all $x\in [0,1]$,
$$\lim_{n\longrightarrow \infty}x^n=0 \quad \text{pointwise}$$
and continuity of $f$ allows us to move the limit by,
$$\lim_{n\longrightarrow \infty}f(x^n)=f(\lim_{n \longrightarrow \infty} x^n)=f(0)$$
for almost all $x\in [0,1]$.
Since $f$ is continuous on $[0,1]$ we know that it achieves a maximum and minimum value on the interval. Take,
$$M=\max_{x\in [0,1]}|f(x)| $$
Then we have for each $x\in [0,1]$,and for each natural number $n$ that $|f_n(x)|=|f(x^n)|\leq M$ and clearly $M\in L^1([0,1])$ since,
$$\int_{0}^1Mdx=M < \infty $$
So we can apply LDCT to move the limit inside the integral sign, and by the continuity of $f$ we may therefore move it inside $f$ to get,
\begin{align*}\lim_{n\longrightarrow \infty}\int_0^1f_n(x)dx&=\\
\lim_{n\longrightarrow \infty}\int_0^1f(x^n)dx&=\\
\int_0^1 \lim_{n\longrightarrow \infty}f(x^n)dx&=\\
\int_0^1 f(\lim_{n\longrightarrow \infty}x^n)dx&=\\
\text{(almost everywhere)}\quad\int_0^1f(0)dx&=\\
f(0)
\end{align*}