Could someone help me find: $$\sum_{k}k \binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}\\ and \sum_{k}k^2 \binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}\\ 0\leq p\leq 1, k\in N, n\ggg k $$
I know the answer to the first one is np, and the second is np(np-p+1) by simulation. But I am not able to prove them.
Can you generalise for all powers of k? It is obvious for 0. $\sum_{k} \binom{n}{k}p^k(1-p)^{n-k}=[p+(1-p)]^n=1$
Wikipedia has a few nice solutions for similar series. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_coefficient#Series_involving_binomial_coefficients