The key to answering this question is knowing that
$$f\alpha f^{-1} = (f(a_1)\, \dots\, f(a_r)).$$
To see this, note that any $b \in \{1, \dots, n\}$ is equal to $f(a)$ for some $a$. If $a \notin \{a_1, \dots, a_r\}$, then
$$(f\alpha f^{-1})(f(a)) = f(\alpha(a)) = f(a).$$ If $a = a_i$, then $$(f\alpha f^{-1})(f(a_i)) = f(\alpha(a_i)) = f(a_{i+1})$$ where $a_{r+1}$ should be interpreted as $a_1$. Therefore,
$$f\alpha f^{-1} = (f(a_1)\, \dots\, f(a_r)).$$
With this fact at your disposal, you want to find $f$ such that
$$f\alpha f^{-1} = (f(a_1)\, \dots\, f(a_r)) = (b_1\, \dots\, b_r).$$
As Derek Holt suggested in the comments, you can take $f(a_i) = b_i$ and extend to a bijection. Note, this is not the only such $f$.