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Let $M$ be a compact, connected, oriented $n$-dimensional manifold without boundary. Suppose that $M\#M\cong M$. Does it imply that $M \cong S^n$?

Sorry if this is a naive question. This is not my area, and I have very few examples of higher dimensional manifolds under my belt, so I wouldn't know how to construct a counter-example!

Bruno Joyal
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This is true. More generally, we prove that if $N\sharp M \cong N$ for a single closed orientable manifold $N$, then $M$ is homeomorphic to a sphere.

First, by the classification of compact surfaces, this is true when $N$ and $M$ are surfaces, so we may assume $n=\dim N \geq 3$.

Now, one can apply van Kampen's Theorem to learn that $\pi_1(M\sharp N)\cong \pi_1(M)\ast \pi_1(N)$. Since $N$ is compact, $\pi_1(N)$ is finitely generated, say with minimal generating set consisting of $r$ generators. Let $s$ be the minimal number of generators of $\pi_1(M)$. Then, $r+s$ is the size of the minimal generating set of $\pi_1(M)\ast \pi_1(N) \cong \pi_1(N)$, so $r+s = r$. Since $r$ is finite, this implies $s = 0$. Thus, $M$ is simply connected.

Using Mayer-Veitoris, and the fact that $N$ is orientable (assumption) and $M$ is orientable (since it's simply connected), one now sees that $H_i(N)\cong H_i(M\sharp N) \cong H_i(M)\oplus H_i(N)$ for $0< i < n$. Since the homology groups of $M\sharp N$ and $M$ are finitely generated abelian groups, we can cancel to find that $H_i(M) = 0$ for $0<i<n$.

All this shows that $M$ is a simply connected homology sphere. The Hurewicz theorem together with Whitehead's theorem now imply $M$ is homotopy equivalent to a sphere. Finally, the Poincare conjecture then implies that $M$ is homeomorphic to a sphere.

  • Very nice! Note that it is not entirely obvious that the minimum number of generators for a free product is the sum of the minimum number of generators for each factor. See this paper for a proof. – Jim Belk Nov 15 '13 at 17:00
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    Cool stuff Jason, thanks for your answer! I'll leave the question open until tonight (for visibility) and then I'll accept your answer. Again, thank you. Regards, – Bruno Joyal Nov 15 '13 at 17:09
  • @Jim: I agree it's not obvious. In fact, an earlier version of this post labeled the argument as "tentative" exactly because of this reason. I found the result I needed here http://books.google.com/books?id=1LW4s1RDRHQC&pg=PA192&lpg=PA192&dq=minimal+presentation+of+a+free+product+of+groups&source=bl&ots=WpBO8WZgHC&sig=xk1y7M8bdiAFrDPn_IPWdtZiVlo&hl=en&sa=X&ei=pUqGUoysDMGfkAfl_IDABg&ved=0CF4Q6AEwBjgK#v=onepage&q=minimal%20presentation%20of%20a%20free%20product%20of%20groups&f=false but then a student came by and I forgot to add it in as a comment ;-) – Jason DeVito - on hiatus Nov 15 '13 at 18:38
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    I think, the statement about the rank of the free product is called Grushko's theorem. – Moishe Kohan Nov 15 '13 at 20:13
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    Wow, this answer uses some serious heavy artillery. – Nate Eldredge Nov 15 '13 at 23:28
  • @NateEldredge I'm quite impressed as well! Also, I wonder when the Poincaré conjecture will start being known as the Perelman theorem... – Bruno Joyal Nov 16 '13 at 01:06
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    @Bruno: If anything, the Poincare conjecture should be known as the Freedman-Perelman-Smale theorem ;-). – Jason DeVito - on hiatus Nov 16 '13 at 03:10
  • @Jason: I will take your word for it! I am definitely in no position to attribute credit (except to you, for your nice answer). – Bruno Joyal Nov 16 '13 at 03:11
  • @Bruno: Well, Perelman did dimension 3, Freedmean did dimension 4, and Smale did 5 and up. I don't know who to give credit to in 2, perhaps Riemann for his mapping theorem? (I know very little math history). – Jason DeVito - on hiatus Nov 16 '13 at 03:16
  • @Jason Ah, that makes sense. I do not know who the classification of orientable surfaces is due to. I suppose that it's been known for a long time by a lot of people, in varying degrees of rigor. – Bruno Joyal Nov 16 '13 at 03:18