2

Let me explain the title of the problem and the problem very clearly :

If $X$ and $Y$ are subsets of a topological spaces $A$ and $B$ respectively, which are homeomorphic in the respective subspace topology, does it imply that their closure $\bar{X}$ and $\bar{Y}$ are homeomorphic ?

GA316
  • 4,522

3 Answers3

10

Hint. Consider $\mathbb{R}$ and $(0, 1)$.

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To the edited question, the answer is no. Consider $Y=X=A=(0,1)$, $B=[0,1]$.

Martin Argerami
  • 217,281
1

For another mode of failure....

Let $A$ and $B$ the the Euclidean plane. Let $X$ be the unit interval $(0,1)$ on the $x$-axis. Let $Y$ be the unit circle minus the point $(-1,0)$.