I thought I knew the answer to this question, but further reflection is showing some holes in my knowledge; my college math is twenty-five years old and google isn't helping today.
Let's say you have a computer with five disk drives. If any one of the drives crashes, the computer is down. For this model of drives, 99% of them run a year without crashing. So the probability that this computer will be up the entire year is
.99 number of drives
or
.99 5 ≈ .95
That's correct, right?
Now the obverse observation is that each drive has a 1% chance of failure over the course of a year. How does one express the total chance of failure for the whole computer? The answer should be 5%, because that's what's left over from the 95% given above.
The naive approach would be to do the same thing again:
.015
but that gives 0.0000000001 which obviously isn't right. What am I missing here?