In greeberg's algebraic topology, the following fact is used in the proof that contractible spaces are simply connected without justification:
Let $p:\mathbb{I}\rightarrow X$ be a continuous function such that $p(0)=p(1)$ and $X$ is contractible. Then there exists a continuous function $F:\mathbb{I}\times \mathbb{I}\rightarrow X$ such that:
1) $F(s,0)=p(0)$ for all $s\in \mathbb{I}$
2) $F(s,1)=p(s)$ for all $s\in \mathbb{I}$
3) $F(0,t)=F(1,t)$ for all $t\in \mathbb{I}$
I agree that there exists a map $F$ such that the first 2 conditions are satisfied, but what about the third ? Is there an obvious way to see that that the three conditions can be satisfied. As I mentioned the book uses this fact without justification.
Thank you
Reminder: All answers posted so far are proving the fact that contractible spaces are simply connected. Note that my original question (found above) asks for a justification of the fact that the book stated without justification. I don't think it s obvious.