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Let $n \in \mathbb{Z}$ with $n > 0$. Let $F(n) = \sum_{d \mid n} \lambda(d)$. Prove that $$F(n) = \begin{cases}1, \quad \text{if }n \text{ is a perfect square}\\ 0, \quad \text{otherwise} \end{cases} $$

By the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, all $d$'s admit a prime factorization $d=p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_k^{a_k}$ for primes $p_i$ and nonnegative integers $a_i$. So $\lambda(d)=\lambda(p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_k^{a_k})$. Now the idea is that all the divisors will cancel in pairs of $1$ and $-1$ when $n$ is a perfect square, except the divisor $1$, and so the sum will total $1$. How do I prove this rigorously? If I just choose a generic divisor and write it's prime factorization I don't find anything I can generalize. Can you help?

draks ...
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    note that Liouville function is multiplicative so it is enough to check it for prime powers only. – leshik Oct 06 '13 at 02:45
  • So prime powers $p_i^{a_i}$ for each prime? But we have divisors which have mixed primes, like $p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}$ is a divisor. I know I can split it up like $\lambda(p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2})=\lambda(p_1^{a_1}) \lambda(p_2^{a_2})$ but how does the argument go for the pairwise cancellation with this? – Numbersandsoon Oct 06 '13 at 02:48
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    @BoSchmidt No, what leshik means is that if $\lambda(n)$ is multiplicative then so is $\sum_{d\mid n} \lambda(d)$. Whenever you have two functions $f(n)$ and $g(n)$ which are known to be multiplicative, proving $f(p^k) = g(p^k)$ for every prime power $p^k$ is enough to show $f(n) = g(n)$ for all $n$. This avoids having to worry about mixed prime divisors. – Erick Wong Oct 06 '13 at 07:06
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    This is the Theorem 2.19 in the book "Introduction to Analytic Number Theory" of Tom M. Apostol. Springer-Verlag, New York-Heidelberg-Berlin. (En traducción al Español, está en la página 46). The theorem add the property $\lambda^{-1}(n)=|\mu (n)|$ where $\mu$ is the Möbius function. – Ataulfo Jul 20 '16 at 12:36
  • Hi! I know I am pretty late. But I am stuck while studying this from the book by Tom Apostol. I understood how $\lambda(n)$ is completely multiplicative but I am not able to understand how $\sum_{d|n}{\lambda(d)} $ is multiplicative. Anyone, please help! Just a hint will do. I must be missing something obvious. – Another_Ramanujan_Fan May 24 '21 at 12:23

2 Answers2

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Here's an elementary approach:

  • $F$ is multiplicative for prime powers. It follows from the fact that the Liouville function $\lambda$ is multiplicative. Let $p^k$ and $q^l$ be two prime powers. Then, $$F(p^kq^l)=\sum_{i=0}^k\sum_{j=0}^l\lambda(p^iq^j)=\sum_{i=0}^k\sum_{j=0}^l\lambda(p^i)\lambda(q^j)=\left(\sum_{i=0}^k\lambda(p^i)\right)\left(\sum_{j=0}^l\lambda(q^j)\right)=F(p^k)F(q^l).$$

  • The result holds for prime towers. Because \begin{align*} F(p^k)=\sum_{i=0}^k\lambda(p^i)=\sum_{i=0}^k(-1)^i=\frac{1-(-1)^{k+1}}{1-(-1)}=\frac{1+(-1)^k}{2}=\begin{cases}1&\text{if }k\text{ is even}\\ 0&\text{if }k\text{ is odd}\end{cases}. \end{align*}

  • Factor. Let $n=p_1^{k_1}p_2^{k_2}\cdots p_r^{k_r}$ where the primes $p_i$ are distinct. Then, $$F(n)=F(p_1^{k_1})F(p_2^{k_2})\cdots F(p_r^{k_r})=\begin{cases}1&\text{if }k_1,\ldots,k_r\text{ are all even}\\ 0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}=\begin{cases}1&\text{if }n\text{ is a }\square\\ 0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}.$$

moqui
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You can prove it using "multiplicative" property and it's simple but I just solved it without it and I believe that it's much more beautiful.

Consider $$n=p_{1}^{a_1} p_2^{a_2} ... p_k^{a_k}$$

So $\Omega(n)=\sum a_i$ and $\lambda(n)=(-1)^{\Omega(n)}$

Now $$\sum_{d|n}\lambda(d)=\sum_{d|n}(-1)^{\Omega(d)}$$

So it's suffices to calculate $D$; the difference of the number of divisor with even $\Omega$ and odd $\Omega.$

Now consider $f(x)=(1+x+x^2+...+x^{a_1})(1+x+x^2+...+x^{a_2})...(1+x+x^2+...+x^{a_k}) $

The coefficient of $x^r$ in above expansion is equal to the number of solutions of this equation:

$$x_1+x_2+...+x_k=r $$ $$0 \le x_i \le a_i$$ which is the number of divisors of $n$ with $\Omega$ equals to $r$.

Hence, $f(-1)=D.$

But $f(-1)$ is $0$ if at least one of $a_i$ is odd and $f(-1)=1$ if $n$ is a perfect square. $Q.E.D$


As a second solution:

It's easy to check $\lambda=1_{Sq}*\mu $

$[$ Actually the summation has only one term.$]$

Now convolve both sides with the $1$ function [which is inverse of $\mu$]

$$ \lambda * 1=1_{Sq}*\mu*1=1_{Sq} $$

.

MR_BD
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    the most natural answer is that $\zeta(s) = \prod_p \frac{1}{1-p^{-s}}$ so that $\frac{\zeta(2s)}{\zeta(s)} = \prod_p \frac{1}{1+p^{-s}}= \sum_n \lambda(n) n^{-s}$ and $\sum_n \sum_{d | n} \lambda(d) n^{-s} = (\sum_n \lambda(n) n^{-s})(\sum_n n^{-s})$ $ = \frac{\zeta(2s)}{\zeta(s)} \zeta(s) = \zeta(2s) = \sum_n n^{-2s} = \sum_n n^{-s} 1_{n \text{ is a square}}$ – reuns Jul 20 '16 at 15:21
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    @user1952009 it was exactly what i said in the second proof... – MR_BD Jul 20 '16 at 15:32
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    no because what I wrote is clear and rigorous :) – reuns Jul 20 '16 at 15:33
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    @user1952009 it's what you think yourself! :D – MR_BD Jul 20 '16 at 15:36
  • no really it's true, use Dirichlet series and Euler product when it is possible (when you are considering the Dirichlet convolution of multiplicative functions), see how everything becomes easy – reuns Jul 20 '16 at 15:39
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    @user1952009 Convolution is the base of Dirichlet series production and is as powerful as Dirichlet series – MR_BD Jul 20 '16 at 15:41
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    the beginning of your answer means nothing, it shows you are new to Dirichlet series, so follow my advice – reuns Jul 20 '16 at 15:45
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    @user1952009 i just justified that equation without Dirichlet Series, Because the question seems to be elementary... – MR_BD Jul 20 '16 at 15:54
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    @user1952009: The proof in Apostol's book (page 46) is both quite elementary and rigourous. – Ataulfo Jul 20 '16 at 17:14
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    I don't see what you mean. of course you can use Dirichlet convolution instead of Dirichlet series, but for multiplicative functions it is obvious that Dirichlet series with Euler products are preferred, and if Apostol doesn't understand this, it is not my problem. – reuns Jul 20 '16 at 17:18