Consider the set of all Algebraic numbers that can be written in the form
$$ x = \frac 1q \cdot \sum_{i=1}^{n}(-1)^{k_i} \sqrt{a_i} $$
with $q, n, k_i, a_i \in \mathbb{N}^+$
Is this set closed under inversion, i.e, can every $\frac 1x$ be written in the same form?
Own research:
This looks simple for $n=1$ and $n=2$ as $\frac 1{\sqrt a} = \frac 1a {\sqrt a}$ and $\frac 1{\sqrt a + \sqrt b} = \frac 1{a-b}(\sqrt a - \sqrt b)$.
But even for $n=3$ is is not immediately clear for me. In specific cases, WolframAlpha can find an inversion for me, for example $\frac 1{\sqrt 2+\sqrt 3 - \sqrt 7} = \frac 1{10} (4 \sqrt 2 + 3 \sqrt 3 + \sqrt 7 + \sqrt{42})$. But I am unsure if this is possible in any cases, and if not, how to construct a counter-example and prove it.