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Consider a matrix $\mathbf{A} \in \{0, 1\}^{K \times N}$ and a vector $\mathbf{b} \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}^{K \times 1}$ (i.e., elements of $\mathbf{A}$ are either $0$ or $1$, and elements of $\mathbf{b}$ are positive integers). We define two optimization problems:

Problem 1 (Linear Program) \begin{align*} & \text{Minimize:} & & \sum_{i=1}^{N} x_i \\ & \text{Subject to:} & & \mathbf{A} \mathbf{x} \ge \mathbf{b} \\ & & & x_i \geq 0 \quad \forall i \in \{1, \ldots, N\} \end{align*} Let the optimal solution be $\mathbf{x}^* = [x_1^*, \ldots, x_N^*]^{\mathrm{T}}$, and define $R_1 := \sum_{i=1}^{N} x_i^*$.

Problem 2 (Integer Program) \begin{align*} & \text{Minimize:} & & \sum_{i=1}^{N} y_i \\ & \text{Subject to:} & & \mathbf{A} \mathbf{y} \ge \mathbf{b} \\ & & & y_i \in \mathbb{N} \quad \forall i \in \{1, \ldots, N\} \end{align*} Let the optimal solution be $\mathbf{y}^* = [y_1^*, \ldots, y_N^*]^{\mathrm{T}}$, and define $R_2 := \sum_{i=1}^{N} y_i^*$.

Question:

Is it always true that $R_2 = \lceil R_1 \rceil$?

I have conducted extensive numerical simulations with randomly generated matrices $\mathbf{A} \in \{0,1\}^{K \times N}$ and vectors $\mathbf{b} \in \mathbb{Z}_{>0}^K$, and I have yet to find a counterexample. Any rigorous proof or a counterexample would be greatly appreciated.

This question has also been posted on [Operations Research Stack Exchange]https://or.stackexchange.com/questions/13181/relationship-between-optimal-solutions-of-a-linear-program-and-its-integer-count

  • For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., here, here, here and here. – Another User Jun 01 '25 at 16:13
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    The minimum dominating set in graphs can be written in this format (even with b=1 and binary y), and it is NP-hard. So there can be no simple relation between the solution to the IP and its relaxation. – Michal Adamaszek Jun 02 '25 at 08:02
  • @Michal Adamaszek Thank you for the comment! I agree that the binary case (with $y_i \in {0,1}$) captures the dominating set problem and is NP-hard. However, in my formulation, the variables $y_i \in \mathbb{N}$ have no upper bounds, so the IP is more relaxed than the binary case. I wonder whether the integrality gap still applies here, or if the lack of upper bounds could lead to tighter LP relaxations (e.g., always having $R_2 = \lceil R_1 \rceil$). I'd appreciate any thoughts or references you may have on related results in this setting. – Andrew Follett Jun 02 '25 at 14:54
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    The MIP model for the dominating set problem solves the same if its variables are natural numbers (if some is $\geq 2$ you can replace it by $1$ and still have a feasible solution and you are minimizing), so the reduction still applies. – Michal Adamaszek Jun 02 '25 at 15:26
  • @Michal Adamaszek You're right that the minimum dominating set (MDS) problem is a special case of my formulation. However, despite extensive numerical experiments, I haven't yet encountered a single instance—even for MDS—where $R_2 > \lceil R_1 \rceil$. If possible, could you kindly point me to a specific example (or construction) where this strict inequality holds? – Andrew Follett Jun 02 '25 at 17:30

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For a simple example where the ILP and its linear relaxation can be arbitrarily far apart, consider the following problem with $3N$ variables:

\begin{align*} & \text{Minimize:} & & \sum_{i=1}^N (x_i + y_i + z_i) \\ & \text{Subject to:} & & x_i + y_i \ge 1 & \quad \forall i \in \{1, \ldots, N\}\\ & & & x_i + z_i \ge 1 & \quad \forall i \in \{1, \ldots, N\}\\ & & & y_i + z_i \ge 1 & \quad \forall i \in \{1, \ldots, N\}\\ & & & x_i, y_i, z_i \geq 0 & \quad \forall i \in \{1, \ldots, N\} \end{align*}

Here, $R_1 = \frac32 N$ (obtained by setting $x_i = y_i = z_i = \frac12$ for all $i$) but $R_2 = 2N$ (since at least two of $x_i, y_i, z_i$ must be at least $1$ for each $i$.) As soon as $N\ge 2$, we have $R_2 > \lceil R_1 \rceil$: when $N=2$, we have $R_1 = \lceil R_1 \rceil = 3$ but $R_2 = 4$.

In general, as soon as there is any gap between $R_1$ and $R_2$, we can combine many independent copies of the same problem to make that gap arbitrarily large, until eventually it exceeds $1$ and so $R_2$ must be bigger than $\lceil R_1 \rceil$. Here, this is done with a three-variable problem, which is the smallest case for which a gap occurs.

Misha Lavrov
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  • I tried to check if the matrix is TU by Heller-Tompson criterium method in R, and it shows the matrix is TU. Would you say, please, is it possible to have a TU matrix and the solution of IP is being different from whose relaxation? May I do something wrong? – A.Omidi Jun 03 '25 at 09:35
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    @A.Omidi The matrix is not TU as the constraint blocks (e.g., $[1, 1, 0; 0, 1, 1; 1, 0, 1]$) do not satisfy the criteria. – Andrew Follett Jun 03 '25 at 13:52
  • @AndrewFollett, Thanks. I will add corresponding matrix and the results I got from the package, to see where I am doing wrong. The problem is really interesting to me. – A.Omidi Jun 03 '25 at 20:06
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    @AndrewFollett, I mistakenly considered the RHS as an input of the matrix, and this is why it shows the TU condition as True. By modifying that, all of the methods I tried showed that the matrix does not have the TU condition. :) – A.Omidi Jun 04 '25 at 10:24