This is a tentative partial answer to my own question, containing also open points which require further investigation. If anybody has any suggestion, you are welcome to comment or post a different answer.
The construction of a cone is indeed eye-catching, but the problem there is defining the "base" set. If we start with a metric, such a set may simply be the unit circle; however, as I also explained in my edits to my original question, I want to deal with the scenario before introducing a metric.
I have been elaborating on the first comment by @psl2Z (does the mention work here?):
You would have an action of the monoid $(,\cdot)$ on a set $$, where $(,+,\cdot)$ is the field.
Let us indeed start from a bare set $V$, whose elements are thought to represent (relative) positions (with respect to a chosen spatial point, i.e. to an "observer"). Instead of a generic field, I want to consider $\mathbb R$ from the outset; more precisely, let us assume that we can multiply any element of $V$ by any positive real number and obtain an element of $V$. (The heuristic idea is that space extends indefinitely in each direction.)
We are then given an operation from $\mathbb R^+\times V$ into $V$. In other words, if $\alpha\in\mathbb R^+$ and $x\in V$ then $\alpha x\in V$. Of course, we want $1x=x$ and $\beta(\alpha x)=(\beta\alpha)x$. Since $(\mathbb R^+,\cdot)$ is a group (and not only a monoid), this defines a group action. Further, if $\alpha\neq1$ we want $\alpha x\neq x$ for all $x\in V$, so the action is free. It is not transitive (heuristically, positions in different directions are not proportional to each other).
Let us introduce an equivalence relation $\sim$ in $V$ by $y\sim x$ iff $y=\alpha x$ for some $\alpha>0$. The equivalence classes are the (oriented) directions. We may even use $\mathbb R^*$ ($=\mathbb R-\{0\}$) for the group, so that each direction has its opposite-oriented one.
I would like now to introduce a concept of dimension and a concept of isotropy. For the former, the problem is that I don't have the sum in $V$ (to form linear combinations); for the latter, I need to introduce rotations, but I don't have a metric (to define them as isometries).
EDIT
I have meanwhile elaborated a bit on my ideas, and here's what I came up with. I am hereafter classifying the two actions as "Dilations" and "Rotations". Maybe in a "physical-based" exposition the dilations should be seen as existence of "all" "distances" from the origin, while the rotations as possibility to "look around".
Dilations
Let $V$ be a set (of (relative) positions). Let
$$\cdot: \mathbb R^\times \times V \rightarrow V$$
be a free action of the commutative group $(\mathbb R^\times,\cdot)$ on $V$, i.e.
- $1\cdot\mathbf x=\mathbf x$;
- $\beta(\alpha\mathbf x)=(\beta\alpha)\mathbf x$;
- $\alpha\mathbf x\neq x$ if $\alpha\neq1$.
For $\mathbf x,\mathbf y\in V$, let $mathbf y\sim\mathbf x$ iff $\mathbf y=\alpha\mathbf x$ for some $\alpha\gt0$ (equivalence relation). Let $D:=V/\sim$ (set of directions). For each $d\in D$ and $x\in d$, let $-d:=[(-1)\cdot\mathbf x]$ ($\in D$) (opposite direction with respect to $d$).
Rotations
Let $R:=\mathbb R[\text{mod2}]$ (set of rotation parameters). A complete set of representatives is $]-1,1]$. $(R,+)$ is a commutative group. Let
$$ \times: R \times V \rightarrow V $$
be an action of $(R,+)$ on $V$. In formulae:
- For $[r],[s]\in R$, $[s]=[r]$ iff $s-r\in2\mathbb{Z}$;
- For $\mathbf x\in V$, $0\times\mathbf x=\mathbf x$;
- For $r_1,r_2\in R$ and $\mathbf x\in V$, $r_2\times(r_1\times\mathbf x)=(r_1+r_2)\times\mathbf x$.
Let us assume that $\cdot$ and $\times$ commute, i.e.
$$ r \times (\alpha \mathbf x) = \alpha \cdot (r \times \mathbf x) $$
for $\mathbf x\in V$, $\alpha\in\mathbb R^\times$, $r\in R$.
At this point, $\times$ is $\sim$-preserving, i.e., for $\mathbf x,\mathbf y\in V$ with $\mathbf y\sim\mathbf x$ and $r\in R$, $r\times\mathbf y\sim r\times\mathbf x$. In other words, for $r\in R$, $d\in D$ and $\mathbf x,\mathbf y\in d$ (i.e. $\mathbf x,\mathbf y\in V$ and $\mathbf y\sim\mathbf x$), $[r\times\mathbf y]_\sim=[r\times\mathbf x]_\sim$ (which we call $r\times d$).
Further, let us assume that $\times$ is simply transitive on $D$, i.e., if $d_1,d_2\in D$, there is a unique $r\in R$ s.t. $d_2=r\times d_1$.
As a consequence, if $r\times\mathbf x=\mathbf x$ for some $\mathbf x\in V$, then $d=r\times d$ where $d=[\mathbf x]$ (because $\times$ is $\sim$-preserving), thus $r=0$ (because $\times$ is simply transitive on $D$, and then free on $D$), i.e. $\times$ is free on $V$ (in particular, if given $\mathbf x_1,\mathbf x_2\in V$ there is an $r\in R$ s.t. $\mathbf x_2=r\times\mathbf x_1$, such an $r$ is unique).
Finally, let us note that, for $r\in R^\times$ and $d\in D$, $r\times(r\times d)=d$ iff $(r+r)\times d=d$ iff $(r+r)=0$ ($\times$ is free on $D$) iff $r=1$. Now, there is a unique $r\neq0$ s.t. $r\times d=-d$. Let us choose an $\mathbf x\in d$; then, $r\times\mathbf x=\alpha\mathbf x$ for some $\alpha\lt0$ and $r\times(r\times\mathbf x)=\alpha^2\mathbf x$ ($\cdot$ and $\times$ commute). Since $\alpha^2\gt0$, $\alpha^2\mathbf x\in d$; thus, $r\times(r\times d)=d$ and $r=1$. Shortly,
$$ 1\times d = -d $$
for $d\in D$. Also, $1\times\mathbf x=\alpha\mathbf x$ ($\alpha\lt0$) and $\mathbf x=0\times\mathbf x=(1+1)\times\mathbf x=1\times(1\times\mathbf x)=\alpha^2\mathbf x$, i.e. $\alpha^2=1$, $\alpha=-1$ and in the end $1\times\mathbf x=-\mathbf x$ for $\mathbf x\in V$.
Let's discuss isotropy. I think that in the setup above this concept is already captured by the fact that I'm using the "normal" sum (modulo 2) over $R$. Let us relax this assumption and just pretend that there is some operation $\boxplus:R\times R\rightarrow R$, forming a group and acting simply transitively on the set $D$ of directions. I suppose that the condition of isotropy is:
If $d_1,d_2,d'_1,d'_2\in D$ and $r,\bar{r}\in R$, with $d_2=r\times d_1$, $d'_1=\bar{r}\times d_1$ and $d'_2=\bar{r}\times d_2$ (we rotate everything by $\bar{r}$), then $d'_2=r\times d'_1$.
From here, it is easy to show that $\boxplus$ is abelian. Question: is this sufficient to get the ordinary sum over the reals (reduced to the sum mod 2 over $R$)?
BTW, the answer is "almost" yes, based on this question. That needs to be extended to account for the mod2.
One other note is that what above will for sure lead to a 2-dim result, so it has to be extended to (at least) 3-dims.