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I meet a problem when reading Analysis in Banach Space (Volume I). On page 2 the authors assume that $X$ is a separable Banach space. For a given subset $Y\subset X^*$, they denote $\sigma(Y)$ as the smallest $\sigma$-algebra in $X$ for which every $x^*\in Y$ is measurable (where in my opinion this means $\bigcup_{x^*\in Y,B\in\mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K})}(x^*)^{-1}(B)\subset\sigma(Y)$, here $\mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K})$ means Borel sets on $\mathbb{K}$). Then they claim that $\sigma(Y)$ is generated by the collection $\mathscr{C}(Y)$ of all sets of the form $$ \{x\in X:(\langle x_1^*,x\rangle,\cdots,\langle x_n^*,x\rangle)\in B\} $$ with $n\ge1,x_1^*,\cdots,x_n^*\in Y,B\in\mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K}^n)$, which I cannot figure out why.

I've tried the following two ways to prove this claim:

  • If $X^*$ is also separable, then the claim is a direct result after taking the countable dense subset of $Y$. But we only know $X$ is separable, which may not lead to the separability of $X^*$ or $Y$.

  • I have proved that $\mathscr{C}(Y)$ is a $\pi$-system, and I have tried to use Dynkin's $\pi$-$\lambda$ theorem, showing that $\sigma(Y)$ is the smallest $\lambda$-system containing $\mathscr{C}(Y)$. However, since $\lambda$-system may not be $\sigma$-algebra, I think we should start with a $\lambda$-system $\mathcal{L}$ containing $\mathscr{C}(Y)$ and to show that $\sigma(Y)\subset\mathcal{L}$, which I have no idea how to continue.

So how to prove the claim above? The authors said it's "easy" but I can't agree :( I'll be glad for any reply!

ununhappy
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    I don't think you need any theorem. It follows from the definitions and even seprability of $X$ is not needed. – Kavi Rama Murthy Apr 28 '25 at 11:33
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    Maybe their appendix B.1.b will help. – Daan Apr 28 '25 at 11:54
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    Also, their remark on separability is more of a warning, as $\sigma$-algebras on nonseparable spaces can be rather "wild". A good paper (and the references therein) is that of Measures on Non-Separable Metric Spaces by R.M. Dudley. – Daan Apr 28 '25 at 12:02
  • @geetha290krm Thanks for your reply! I've known how to prove it when $\mathscr{C}(Y)=\bigcup_{n\ge1}\bigcup_{{x_k^}\in Y^n}\bigcup_{B\in\mathscr{B}}{x:(\langle x_k^,x\rangle\in B)}$ thanks to Miller's answer. It seems like I've misunderstood what the claim want to emphasize. I thought that the claim wanted to use countably $x_n^*$ to characterize $\sigma(Y)$. However I still wonder if there exists such a characterization, just like the characterization of basis of neighborhoods in weak topology? – ununhappy Apr 28 '25 at 12:53
  • @ununhappy I'm not sure what you are looking for when you talk about using countably many $x_{n}^{*}$ to characterise $\sigma (Y)$. In general, you cannot use countably many linear functionals to determine the weak topology on some normed space. On the other hand, you can use a collection of sets, each of which are obtained using finitely many members of $Y$ and a member of $\mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K})$, to determine $\sigma (Y)$. – Dean Miller Apr 28 '25 at 13:04
  • @geetha290krm Oh, maybe I catch the point. I thought that when discussing a neighborhood $V\subset U$ in weak topology we can assume that $V={x\in E:|\langle x_i^,x\rangle|<\varepsilon,i=1,\cdots k}$. But this doesn't mean that there are only countably many $V$, since the choice of $x_i^$ can be uncountably. For the same reason here we can't use just countably many sets like ${:(\langle x_i^*,x\rangle)\in B}$ to characterize something. Am I right? – ununhappy Apr 28 '25 at 13:19
  • @ununhappy That is correct. In the norm topology the centres of points from a dense subset can be used to generate a base for the norm topology, but this doesn't work for the weak topology. This and this may help. – Dean Miller Apr 28 '25 at 14:00

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By definition, the $\sigma$-algebra $\sigma (Y)$ on $X$ is generated by sets of the form \begin{equation} \{x\in X : \langle x^{*}, x\rangle \in B\} \end{equation} with $x^{*}\in Y$ and $B\in \mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K})$, while the $\sigma$-algebra $\mathscr{C}(Y)$ on $X$ is generated by sets of the form \begin{equation} \{x\in X : (\langle x_{j}^{*}, x\rangle )_{j=1}^{n} \in B\} \end{equation} with $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $x_{j}^{*}\in Y$ for each $j\in \{1, \ldots , n\}$ and $B\in \mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K}^{n})$. Clearly we have $\sigma (Y) \subseteq \mathscr{C}(Y)$. For the other inclusion, let $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $x_{1}^{*}, \ldots , x_{n}^{*}\in Y$ and $B\in \mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K}^{n})$. Let $e_{1}, \ldots , e_{n}$ be the standard basis for $\mathbb{K}^{n}$. Then for each $j\in \{1, \ldots , n\}$ the map $\xi \mapsto \xi e_{j}$ from $\mathbb{K}$ into $\mathbb{K}^{n}$ is measurable and the map $x_{j}^{*}$ is $\sigma (Y)$-measurable, so the composition map $x\mapsto \langle x_{j}^{*}, x\rangle e_{j}$ from $X$ into $\mathbb{K}^{n}$ is $\sigma (Y)$-measurable. Hence the sum of such maps $x\mapsto \sum_{j=1}^{n} \langle x_{j}^{*}, x\rangle e_{j}$ from $X$ into $\mathbb{K}^{n}$ is $\sigma (Y)$-measurable and its inverse image under $B$ is the $\sigma (Y)$-measurable set \begin{equation} \{x\in X : \sum_{j=1}^{n} \langle x_{j}^{*}, x\rangle e_{j} \in B\} = \{x\in X : (\langle x_{j}^{*}, x\rangle )_{j=1}^{n} \in B\} . \tag{1} \end{equation} As $\mathscr{C}(Y)$ is the $\sigma$-algebra on $X$ generated by sets of the form $(1)$, we obtain the inclusion $\mathscr{C}(Y) \subseteq \sigma (Y)$.

Note that the separability of $X$ was not used anywhere in the above argument.


Relevant Definitions

Take a Banach space $X$ [over the field $\mathbb{K}$] and $Y\subseteq X^{*}$. There are a few ways we can obtain a $\sigma$-algebra on $X$. The first is to consider the $\sigma$-algebra generated by all the [norm] open subsets of $X$, that is we take the smallest $\sigma$-algebra on $X$ that contains all of the open subsets of $X$. This $\sigma$-algebra is denoted by $\mathscr{B}(X)$ and is called the Borel $\sigma$-algebra on $X$. The second is to consider the $\sigma$-algebra generated by $Y$, that is we take the smallest $\sigma$-algebra on $X$ that makes every $x^{*}\in Y$ measurable, or equivalently is the smallest $\sigma$-algebra generated by sets $(x^{*})^{-1}(B)$ with $x^{*}\in Y$ and $B\in \mathscr{B}(\mathbb{K})$. We denote this $\sigma$-algebra by $\sigma (Y)$. The relation between these $\sigma$-algebras is that $\sigma (Y) \subseteq \mathscr{B}(X)$ in general [because every $x^{*}\in X^{*}$ is $\mathscr{B}(X)$-measurable] and Proposition 1.1.1 in the book provides some conditions on $Y$ and $X$ that imply $\sigma (Y) = \mathscr{B}(X)$.

Dean Miller
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  • Thanks for your answer! So actually this claim "extends" $\sigma(Y)$ but not "simplifies" $\sigma(Y)$? It seems that I misunderstood what this claim mean... I thought this claim is somehow like the characterization of basis of neighborhoods of weak topology, where we reduce the cases to finite many points... – ununhappy Apr 28 '25 at 12:24
  • @ununhappy No problem. I am not exactly sure what you mean with "extends $\sigma (Y)$" and "simplifies $\sigma (Y)$". If you mean that it characterises a collection of sets that generate $\sigma (Y)$ that was larger than the original generating collection, then that is correct. – Dean Miller Apr 28 '25 at 13:00
  • Yes, by saying "extends $\sigma(Y)$" I want to describe that $\sigma(Y)$ can be generated by a larger set (like here $\mathscr{C}(Y)$ is larger than $\bigcup_{x^\in Y}\bigcup_{B\in\mathscr{B}}{x:\langle x^,x\rangle\in B}$). And by saying "simplifies $\sigma(Y)$" I want to describe that $\sigma(Y)$ can be generated by a smaller set (like $\bigcup_{x^\in Y_{\mathrm{ct}}}\bigcup_{B\in\mathscr{B}}{x:\langle x^,x\rangle\in B}$, here $Y_{\mathrm{ct}}$ is a countably dense subset of $Y$ (if exists)). The latter one likes basis of neighborhoods of weak topology. – ununhappy Apr 28 '25 at 13:09
  • @ununhappy I would not expect such a characterisation for a smaller set because that doesn't work even for the weak topology in general. This is because the weak topology on an infinite-dimensional Banach space never has a countable base. – Dean Miller Apr 28 '25 at 13:18
  • Thanks! I thought I've confused "the set forming the basis is finite" with "countably finity basis". – ununhappy Apr 28 '25 at 13:22
  • @ununhappy I can add more explanation as to what the $\sigma$-algebra $\sigma (Y)$ is if that helps. – Dean Miller Apr 28 '25 at 13:23
  • Oh, that will be great! Thank you very much! I'm new to measure theory and I don't have much intuition about $\sigma$-algebras... – ununhappy Apr 28 '25 at 13:28