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Let the tall matrix ${\bf J} \in {\Bbb R}^{m \times n}$ (with $m>n$) have full column rank. Note that $\bf J$ is the Jacobian of some invertible transformation. Moreover, let the matrix ${\bf K} \in {\Bbb R}^{m \times m}$ be invertible. Is there a way (e.g., using a generalised inverse) to simplify $ \mathbf{J} \left(\mathbf{J}^\top \mathbf{K}\mathbf{J} \right)^{-1} \mathbf{B} = \mathbf{0}$, where $\mathbf{B}$ is a block matrix of the form $\mathbf{B} = \left( \begin{array}{c} \mathbf{I}_n \\ \mathbf{0}_{(m-n)\times n} \end{array}\right)$?

Vuk
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