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$(\alpha ^ \beta) ^ \gamma = \alpha ^ {(\beta \gamma)}$ for arbitrary cardinals.

I found many proofs of this statement on this site. However, none of them considers an exception in this statement.

When $\alpha > 0$ and $\beta = \gamma = 0$, $(\alpha ^ \beta) ^ \gamma = 0^0 = 1 > 0 = \alpha ^ 0 = \alpha ^ {(\beta \gamma)}$.

Am I missing something here or are all the answers from this site proving this statement missing this exception?

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As Sassatelli Giulio has noted in the comments, I've made a mistake in assuming $1^0 = 0$ for cardinals, but rather it should be $1^0 = 1$ because there is exactly one map from the empty set to any set. The statement holds true for all arbitrary cardinals.

For the reason why there is exactly one map from the the empty set to any set, please check out this answer (https://math.stackexchange.com/a/475620/1426819) from this site.