Find the value of $A$ where $$A=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n-m)^2}$$ and $m\in\mathbb{Q}\setminus\mathbb{Z}$
I tried putting $t=n-m$ and rewrote the summation as $$\sum_{t=-\infty-\{0\}}^{\infty}\frac{1}{t^2}$$ But this doesn't feel right to me. Also as $m$ isn't an integer, we won't be able to use any concept of Basel problem.
Any help is greatly appreciated.