I'm working on a problem from a number theory book where we consider the alternating harmonic series truncated at the term $\frac{1}{4n-1}$. More precisely, we define
$$S_n = 1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} + \cdots + \frac{1}{4n-1}$$
and suppose that, when written in lowest terms,
$S_n = \frac{a}{b}$ with $\gcd(a, b) = 1$
I need to prove that if $6n-1$ is prime, then $6n-1 \mid a$.
I have some ideas that involve rewriting the series in terms of harmonic numbers and working modulo $6n-1$. Some of my ideas are:
Rewriting the Series:
Express $S$ in terms of harmonic numbers. One way to do this is to show that$$S_n = H_{4n-1} - H_{2n-1}$$
where $H_k = \sum_{i=1}^{k} \frac{1}{i}$ is the $k$th harmonic number.
Working in $\mathbb{Z}_{6n-1}$:
Since $6n-1$ is prime and $6n-1 > 4n-1$, none of the denominators $1, 2, \dots, 4n-1$ is divisible by $6n-1$. Therefore, every integer $k$ in that range is invertible modulo $6n-1$.Pairing and Cancellation:
By considering the series modulo $6n-1$, try to pair terms in such a way that their contributions cancel, showing that$$S_n \equiv 0 \pmod{6n-1}.$$
This would imply that, in the reduced form $\frac{a}{b}$, the numerator $a$ must be divisible by $6n-1$ (since $b$ is coprime to $6n-1$).
I would appreciate any suggestions or corrections to this approach. Specifically, I am looking for a solution without use of calculus, but basic calculus should be acceptable.
I have seen a similar (but different) question on Math StackExchange regarding the divisibility of the numerator of an alternating harmonic series, which considers
$$\sum_{k=1}^{4n} (-1)^{k-1}\frac{1}{k}$$
with $p=6n+1$ prime.
Any help or pointers would be greatly appreciated. Thank you!
If
$$S_n = 1 - \frac{1}{2} + \frac{1}{3} - \frac{1}{4} + \cdots +\frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n} = \frac{a}{b}$$
where $\gcd(a, b) = 1$, then either
$$\frac{3n+1}{2} \mid a$$
or
$$\frac{3n+2}{2} \mid a$$
– SeveralExtent Mar 24 '25 at 18:48