This seems like a simple question , but I cant seem to figure it out. Let $I\subseteq [n]$ be a fixed subset. As we run through subsets $A\subseteq [n] $, exactly half of $A\cap I$ will be even sized.
I came up with it while trying to prove that $\sum_{A\subseteq[n]} (-1)^{\vert A\cap I\vert} = 0$, this identity came up in showing that $\mathbb{E}[w_A(x).w_A(y)] = 1$ if $x=y$, $0$ otherwise. Here $w_A :\{-1,1\}^n\rightarrow\{-1,1\}$ is Walsh function defined as $w_A(x) = \prod_{i\in A}x_i$ and $A$ is a uniform random subset of $[n]$.
Note that if $I=[n]$, then this is true and we have both algebraic and combinatorial proof of that.
Can anyone please help with this one? Both algebraic and combinatorial justification are welcome.