I know that for a solid of revolution generated by rotating a function $f(x)$ around the $x$-axis, the volume $V$ is given by:
$$ V = \int_a^b \pi f^2(x) \,\mathrm dx. $$
Now, for a sphere, the volume is given by $V = \frac{4}{3} \pi r^3$, and when we differentiate this with respect to the radius $r$, we get:
$$ \frac{\mathrm dV}{\mathrm dr} = 4\pi r^2, $$
which is exactly the surface area of the sphere.
My question is: Can we extend this idea of differentiating the volume of a solid of revolution with respect to its radius to solids of revolution? In other words, is it always valid to differentiate the volume formula for a solid of revolution to get the surface area, or are there cases where this doesn’t work? In particular, why does or doesn’t this work?
Can I reason through the surface area of a solid of revolution by differentiating the volume as I did with the sphere?
Now, I want to differentiate the volume formula with respect to $r = f(x)$. The volume of the solid of revolution is given by:
$$ V = \int_a^b \pi f(x)^2 \,\mathrm dx. $$
Differentiating both sides with respect to $r$, we apply the Leibniz rule:
$$ \frac{\mathrm dV}{\mathrm dr} = \int_a^b \pi \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dr} \big( f(x)^2 \big) \,\mathrm dx, $$
$$ \frac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dr} f(x)^2 = 2 f(x); $$
so the differentiation yields:
$$ \frac{\mathrm dV}{\mathrm dr} = \int_a^b 2\pi f(x) \,\mathrm dx. $$