Once you have the assumption that the splitting field is of the form $\mathbb{F}_{5^n}$ for some $n$ the question is quite simple, but how does one actually get to that point? Why is it true that a splitting field of $X^7-1$ over $\mathbb{F}_5$ is of such form? Is this true in a more general case for splitting fields over finite fields?
In related posts like here, In the case of $(x^3+x-1)$ over $\mathbb{F}_3$ its claimed that since its irreducible, it follows that the splitting field is $\mathbb{F}_{3^4}$. So, does this have to do with irreducibility? Separability?