I have come across a $\textbf{non-formal}$ proof of Fourier's Inversion theorem and I wanted to know if reversing the order of the proof one may still use it and gain formality. The proof is:
$$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\hat{f}(\omega)e^{2\pi i \omega t}d\omega = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(y)e^{-2\pi i \omega y}dye^{2\pi i \omega t} d\omega = \\ =\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(y)\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-2\pi i \omega(y-t)}d\omega dy=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(y)\delta(y-t)dy = f(t)$$ were $\delta(\cdot)$ is the Dirac delta function. This proof is not formal, since we are applying the Fubini theorem to a function $\hat{f}(\omega)e^{2\pi i \omega t}$, which is not in $\mathcal{L}^{1}(\mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{R})$. But if we go through it starting from $f(t)$, we can justify using the Fubini theorem using the Young convolution inequality; then we have $f,\delta \in \mathcal{L}^{1}(\mathbb{R})$ and therefore $f\ast\delta \in \mathcal{L}^{1}(\mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{R})$, making it a formal proof.
Is this a correct assumption or am I missing something?